SECTION A: Objective Questions (20 marks)
💡 Key Principle: Palliative care focuses on quality of life, dignity, and holistic support. Always prioritize patient autonomy and comfort!
1 Which of the following is an appropriate exhibition of non-verbal communication with a patient on palliative care?
a) Patting the back of the patient
b) Shaking hands with the patient
c) Singing to the patient
d) Maintaining eye contact with the patient
(d) Maintaining eye contact with the patient
Maintaining eye contact is universally appropriate in palliative care. It conveys presence, empathy, attention, and respect without invasion of personal space. It helps build trust and allows the patient to feel heard and valued. Unlike physical touch, it doesn't risk cultural misinterpretation or cause discomfort in physically sensitive patients.
(a) Patting the back: May be inappropriate or painful in cachectic patients with bone metastases, ascites, or respiratory distress.
(b) Shaking hands: May be difficult or painful for weak, arthritic, or edematous patients; also infection risk.
(c) Singing:Culturally presumptive and may be disturbing to some patients; requires assessing preferences first.
2 The most difficult emotion that health workers should adequately prepare to handle during the process of breaking bad news is
a) Fear
b) Anger
c) Sadness
d) Disgust
(b) Anger
Anger is the most challenging emotion because it can be intense, unpredictable, and directed at the messenger. It may manifest as shouting, threats, or even violence. Health workers must remain calm, not take it personally, and recognize it as a normal stage of grief. Requires de-escalation skills and maintaining professional boundaries while remaining compassionate.
(a) Fear: Easier to address with reassurance, information, and support; more predictable response.
(c) Sadness: Health workers are trained to comfort and empathize; tears are expected and manageable.
(d) Disgust: Rare response; usually not directed at staff but at disease/disability.
ANGER Response Protocol: "A-CT" - Acknowledge, Calm down, Talk through feelings
3 According to the pain management ladder of WHO, mild pain is usually treated by analgesics at step
(a) I
WHO Analgesic Ladder Step I is for mild pain (1-3/10), using non-opioid analgesics like paracetamol, NSAIDs (ibuprofen, diclofenac). Step II is mild-moderate pain (weak opioids like codeine). Step III is moderate-severe pain (strong opioids like morphine). There is no Step IV in the original ladder (though some propose Step IV for refractory pain with interventional techniques).
(b) Step II: For mild-moderate pain (4-6/10) requiring weak opioids + non-opioids.
(c) Step III: For moderate-severe pain (7-10/10) requiring strong opioids.
(d) Step IV:Does not exist in standard WHO 3-step ladder.
WHO LADDER: "1-2-3 PAIN" - Step 1 (Mild): Non-opioids, Step 2 (Moderate): Weak opioids, Step 3 (Severe): Strong opioids
4 Which of the following statements best describes adjuvants?
a) Primary analgesics to control pain
b) Medications not primarily designed to control pain but can be used to
c) Drugs co-administered with analgesic to control pain
d) Co-administered drugs to control side effects of analgesics
(b) Medications not primarily designed to control pain but can be used to
Adjuvants are a class of medications that were not originally developed or approved specifically for pain management, but have been found to have pain-relieving properties or can enhance the effects of other analgesics. They are often used to target specific types of pain (e.g., neuropathic pain) that do not respond well to traditional analgesics.
(a) Primary analgesics:Incorrect. Primary analgesics (like opioids or NSAIDs) are drugs whose main purpose is pain relief. Adjuvants serve a supportive or secondary role in pain management.
(c) Drugs co-administered with analgesic to control pain:Partially correct but not the best description. While adjuvants are often co-administered with primary analgesics, this statement doesn't capture the key characteristic that their *initial* design wasn't for pain control. Many drugs are co-administered for pain (e.g., two different types of analgesics), but not all are considered adjuvants. The crucial element for an adjuvant is its original non-analgesic indication.
(d) Co-administered drugs to control side effects of analgesics:Incorrect. These are typically supportive medications (e.g., antiemetics for nausea from opioids, laxatives for constipation), not adjuvants. Adjuvants are chosen for their ability to contribute to pain relief, not just mitigate side effects.
5 Anti-depressants in palliative care are commonly used to treat ...................................... pain.
a) Acute
b) Chronic
c) Nociceptive
d) Neuropathic
(d) Neuropathic
Tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline, nortriptyline) and SNRIs (duloxetine, venlafaxine) are first-line adjuvants for neuropathic pain. They enhance descending inhibitory pathways by increasing serotonin and norepinephrine. Effective for post-herpetic neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy, chemotherapy-induced neuropathy. Require 2-3 weeks for analgesic effect.
(a) Acute pain:Not primary use; acute pain responds better to opioids and NSAIDs.
(b) Chronic pain:Too general; specifically effective for neuropathic component of chronic pain.
(c) Nociceptive pain:Somatic/visceral pain from tissue damage; responds to opioids/NSAIDs, not antidepressants.
NEUROPATHIC PAIN ADJUVANTS: "A-C-A" - Antidepressants (TCAs, SNRIs), Anticonvulsants (gabapentinoids), Antiarrhythmics (mexiletine)
6 The most common side effect of oral morphine is
a) Pain
b) Insomnia
c) Respiratory distress
d) Constipation
(d) Constipation
Constipation occurs in >95% of patients on chronic opioids due to activation of mu-opioid receptors in GI tract reducing peristalsis, increasing sphincter tone, and decreasing fluid secretion. It is DOSE-RELATED and does NOT develop tolerance. Must be prophylactically treated with stimulant laxatives (senna) + stool softeners (docusate) from day one of opioid therapy.
(a) Pain:Morphine TREATS pain, not causes it. This is opposite of drug effect.
(b) Insomnia: Morphine often causes drowsiness and sedation, improving sleep rather than causing insomnia.
(c) Respiratory distress:Rare at therapeutic doses; only in overdose or rapid escalation. Not the "most common" side effect.
💩 CONSTIPATION PROTOCOL: Always start laxatives when starting morphine! "Soft and speedy" = Stool softener + stimulant laxative. Never just fiber/fluids alone.
7 A supplemental drug which is given to a patient starting oral morphine is
a) NSAIDS
b) Depressant
c) Laxative
d) Anti-emetic
(c) Laxative
Laxatives are ESSENTIAL co-prescriptions with morphine due to near-universal constipation side effect. Should be started PROPHYLACTICALLY at same time as opioid initiation. First-line: stimulant laxative (senna 2-4 tablets at bedtime) + stool softener (docusate 100 mg BID). This prevents opioid-induced bowel dysfunction which can cause bowel obstruction if untreated.
(a) NSAIDs:Not automatically required; used for nociceptive pain component, not universal with morphine.
(b) Depressant:Contradictory- morphine already sedating; adding depressant increases respiratory depression risk.
(d) Anti-emetic:Only if nausea develops (30-50% of patients); not universal prophylaxis like laxatives.
8 Prolonged grief is most appropriately managed by counselling
a) pharmacological treatment, and rehabilitation
b) and allowing the person to grieve
c) and pharmacological treatment
d) frequently
(c) and pharmacological treatment
Prolonged Grief Disorder (PGD) requires multimodal treatment. Counseling (complicated grief therapy) is primary, but antidepressants (SSRIs) are essential when comorbid major depression, severe anxiety, or functional impairment persists >6 months after loss. Medication helps stabilize mood and reduce intensity of grief symptoms, making psychotherapy more effective. "Watchful waiting" alone is insufficient for PGD.
(a) Pharmacological + rehabilitation:Rehabilitation is not primary for grief; focuses on physical recovery, not bereavement.
(b) Allowing to grieve:Insufficient for PGD; may worsen if depression comorbid. Normal grief ≠ prolonged grief disorder.
(d) Frequently:Incomplete answer- doesn't specify what is done frequently or acknowledge need for medication.
9 Which of the following features does the nurse NOT anticipate in a patient suffering from grief?
a) Happiness
b) Helplessness
c) Guilt
d) Anger
(a) Happiness
Grief is characterized by dysphoric emotions - sadness, anger, guilt, helplessness. Genuine happiness is absent in acute grief. While brief moments of relief or bittersweet memories may occur, sustained happiness is not expected. The presence of happiness may indicate: (1) denial phase is still operating, (2) patient is emotionally detached, or (3) they may be experiencing manic symptoms instead of grief.
(b) Helplessness:EXPECTED - common feeling of powerlessness over loss and inability to cope.
(c) Guilt:EXPECTED - "what if" thoughts, survivor's guilt, regrets about relationship.
(d) Anger:EXPECTED - stage of grief, may be directed at deceased, self, medical system, or God.
GRIEF SYMPTOMS: "SHAME" - Sadness, Helplessness, Anger, Memories, Emptiness, Guilt
10 Which of the following counsels is NOT appropriate during bereavement for a patient and family?
a) Should eat a nourishing diet
b) Family should have enough rest
c) Do not seek relief through taking alcohol
d) Close members of the patient should walk bare foot
(d) Close members of the patient should walk bare foot
Walking barefoot has no therapeutic benefit in bereavement and may cause physical harm (injuries, infections, especially in diabetic or immunocompromised family members). This recommendation is culturally specific and potentially dangerous without medical indication. Other options are all evidence-based health promotion advice during bereavement when self-care is often neglected.
(a) Nourishing diet:APPROPRIATE - grief causes poor appetite and weight loss; nutrition supports coping.
(b) Enough rest:APPROPRIATE - grief is exhausting; sleep deprivation worsens emotional dysregulation.
(c) Avoid alcohol:APPROPRIATE - alcohol is depressant, impairs judgment, and can lead to dependence during vulnerable time.
11 Which of the following protective mechanisms enables a bereaved person to go through the funeral experience?
a) Anxiety
b) Disbelief
c) Guilt
d) Anger
(b) Disbelief
Disbelief (denial) is a protective defense mechanism that allows the bereaved to gradually absorb the reality of loss without overwhelming emotional flooding. During funeral, denial helps maintain composure to complete necessary rituals, greet visitors, and make practical arrangements. It acts as a psychological "shock absorber" that modulates grief intensity until the person is ready to process the loss.
(a) Anxiety:Not protective; may cause panic attacks and inability to function during funeral.
(c) Guilt:Complicates grief; can immobilize person and prevent adaptive mourning.
(d) Anger:May disrupt funeral; can alienate support system at crucial time.
12 Which of the following is NOT a need of people as they draw near to the end of their life?
a) Un-forgiveness
b) Reconciliation
c) Acceptance
d) Affirmation
(a) Un-forgiveness
Un-forgiveness is the OPPOSITE of a need at end-of-life. Patients need to give and receive forgiveness, resolve conflicts, and die with peace of mind. Un-forgiveness creates spiritual distress, isolation, and emotional suffering. It is a barrier to "good death." All other options are core needs in Kübler-Ross model and palliative care philosophy.
(b) Reconciliation:IS a need - mending broken relationships provides closure.
(c) Acceptance:IS a need - coming to terms with mortality reduces existential distress.
(d) Affirmation:IS a need - validation of one's life, worth, and legacy.
13 Which of the following is a behavioural reaction to grief?
a) Shortness of breath
b) Loss of appetite
c) Withdrawal
d) Numbness
(c) Withdrawal
Withdrawal is a behavioral reaction - observable action of social isolation, avoiding activities, and pulling away from relationships. It's an active coping mechanism (though maladaptive) that reflects inability to engage with world while processing loss. Can be measured by decreased social interaction, refusal of visitors, and staying in room.
(a) Shortness of breath:PHYSIOLOGICAL - somatic symptom of anxiety/panic, not behavior.
(b) Loss of appetite:PHYSIOLOGICAL - biological response affecting nutrition.
(d) Numbness:EMOTIONAL/COGNITIVE - subjective feeling of detachment, not observable behavior.
GRIEF DOMAINS: "BEN" - Behavioral, Emotional, Physical, Cognitive, Spiritual
14 Which of the following is NOT a principle of palliative care?
a) Family involvement
b) Physical care
c) Individualised care
d) Pain and symptom control
(b) Physical care
All four options represent vital aspects of palliative care. However, when distinguishing between overarching principles and specific components of care delivery, "Physical care" can be argued as the *least* fitting answer for a standalone "principle" in the same conceptual category as the others. Palliative care is inherently holistic, addressing physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs. Family involvement, Individualised care, and Pain and symptom control are fundamental, overarching principles that *guide the philosophy and delivery* of palliative care across all domains. They dictate *how* care is provided and the core objectives.
- Family involvement ensures that the patient's support system is integrated into the care plan and receives support.
- Individualised care ensures that all interventions are tailored to the patient's unique values, preferences, and cultural background.
- Pain and symptom control is a primary, explicit goal that drives many palliative interventions.
Physical care, while undeniably a critical component and a major focus of palliative interventions (e.g., managing nausea, fatigue, breathlessness), can be seen as a *domain* or *category of service* that is *delivered in accordance with* the broader principles. One provides "physical care" *individually*, *involving the family*, with the goal of *controlling pain and symptoms*. Thus, it's more of a manifestation of these principles rather than an overarching principle itself in this context.
If a question requires choosing the "NOT" principle, and all options are undeniably important, the subtle distinction lies in what constitutes a guiding *principle* versus a *component* or *outcome* of care. In this nuanced interpretation, "Physical care" is arguably the best fit for the answer, as it's an application area rather than a foundational guiding philosophy like the others.
(a) Family involvement: IS a principle – palliative care extends support to the entire family unit.
(c) Individualised care: IS a principle – care is customized to meet the unique needs and wishes of each patient.
(d) Pain and symptom control: IS a principle – it is central to improving the patient's quality of life and alleviating suffering.
15 Which of the following statements made by a wife of a dying patient should raise the nurse's concern?
a) "I don't think I can live without my husband caring for me."
b) "We have shared so much that it's hard to realise I will be alone."
c) "I think it is okay leaving him as I go for lunch with my friends."
d) "I don't know if expressing my sadness worsens his condition."
(a) "I don't think I can live without my husband caring for me."
This statement indicates pathological dependency and potential suicidal ideation. The wife's identity and survival are completely enmeshed with patient's care. Suggests inability to imagine life without him, which is red flag for complicated grief, depression, and post-loss suicide risk. Requires immediate psychosocial assessment and safety planning.
(b) Facing aloneness:Normal grief expression, shows awareness and healthy processing.
(c) Taking breaks:Healthy coping - caregiver must maintain own wellbeing.
(d) Worry about expressing sadness:Common concern, easily addressed with education about emotional expression benefits.
16 Which of the following contradicts the principle of hospice care?
a) Focus on quality of care
b) Treat the disease not patient
c) Pain control is important
d) Bereavement counselling is offered
(b) Treat the disease not patient
Hospice care explicitly focuses on COMFORT, not curative treatment. "Treat the disease not patient" is antithetical to palliative philosophy which prioritizes holistic person-centered care over disease-focused interventions. Hospice recognizes that in advanced incurable illness, aggressive disease-directed therapy causes suffering without benefit. The patient as a whole person (physical, emotional, spiritual, social) is the focus.
(a) Quality of care:CORE principle - hospice aims for best possible quality of remaining life.
(c) Pain control:ESSENTIAL principle - relief of suffering is primary goal.
(d) Bereavement counseling:INTEGRAL principle - supports family before and after death.
17 Which of the following types of grief is exhibited by a wife who for 5 years continually sits in her bedroom, crying and talking to her long dead husband?
a) Adaptive
b) Disruptive
c) Prolonged
d) Anticipatory
(c) Prolonged
This is classic Prolonged Grief Disorder (PGD) - grief symptoms persisting >12 months (6 months for children) with functional impairment. Key features: intense yearning, preoccupation with deceased, inability to accept death, significant functional impairment, social withdrawal. The described scenario shows inability to reintegrate into life after 5 years - far beyond normal grief timeline.
(a) Adaptive:Healthy resolution within 6-12 months with return to functioning.
(b) Disruptive:Not standard term - may refer to acute grief but not pathological.
(d) Anticipatory:Grief BEFORE death occurs when loss is expected (terminal illness).
GRIEF TYPES: "NAG-P" - Normal, Acute, Anticipatory, Prolonged
18 The most appropriate drug for managing hiccup in terminally ill patients is
a) Morphine
b) Haloperidol
c) Hyoscine
d) Prednisolone
(b) Haloperidol
Haloperidol is first-line for intractable hiccups in palliative care via dopamine D2 receptor blockade in hypothalamus that modulates hiccup reflex. Dose: 1.5-5 mg BID-TID. Effective within 24-48 hours. Preferred over metoclopramide (can worsen hiccups) and baclofen (sedating). Morphine doesn't treat hiccups; hyoscine is for secretions; steroids are for inflammation.
(a) Morphine:Analgesic; may actually cause respiratory depression but doesn't stop hiccups.
(c) Hyoscine:Anticholinergic for secretions; no effect on hiccup reflex.
(d) Prednisolone:Anti-inflammatory; may help if hiccups due to cerebral edema but not first-line.
🎯 Hiccup Causes in Palliative Care: Gastric distension, uremia, CNS metastases, steroids, chemo. Haloperidol targets CNS hiccup center!
19 Metastatic spinal cord compression always occurs in patients with
a) Neurological symptoms
b) Metastatic bone disease
c) Metastatic vertebral disease
d) Severe unlimiting back pain
(c) Metastatic vertebral disease
MSCC always occurs via metastasis to vertebrae which then expands into epidural space compressing cord. 95% of cases start in vertebral body. Cancer types: breast, prostate, lung, kidney, myeloma. Emergency requiring immediate steroids and radiotherapy/surgery. Can present with pain before neurological deficits. Early recognition prevents permanent paralysis.
(a) Neurological symptoms:Consequence, not cause - occur AFTER compression.
(b) Metastatic bone disease:Too broad - could be in rib, pelvis, limb bones without cord compression.
(d) Severe back pain:Symptom, not mechanism - pain is warning sign, not the underlying pathology.
20 Palliative care services should be integrated among other health care services because of increasing cases of
a) Cancer and HIV/AIDS
b) Malaria and HIV/AIDS
c) Tuberculosis and HIV/AIDS
d) Cancer and malaria
(a) Cancer and HIV/AIDS
Cancer and HIV/AIDS are chronic, life-limiting diseases requiring long-term symptom management. Both have high prevalence, prolonged courses with multiple complications, severe symptom burden, and high mortality in Uganda and Sub-Saharan Africa. These create sustained demand for palliative services. WHO estimates 80% of palliative care need comes from NCDs (cancer, cardiovascular, COPD, diabetes) and HIV/AIDS. Malaria and TB, while serious, are more acute or curable with lower palliative care demand.
(b) Malaria:Acute, curable; not major driver of palliative care need.
(c) TB:Curable with DOTS; palliative need only in untreated or MDR-TB cases.
(d) Cancer and malaria:Malaria doesn't belong - mismatched pairing.
PALLIATIVE CARE INDICATIONS: "C-HOP" - Cancer, HIV/AIDS, Organ failure (heart, lung, kidney, liver), Progressive neurological diseases
Fill in the Blank Spaces (Questions 21-30)
21 Unpleasant sensory and emotional experiences associated with tissue damage are called …………………………………….
Pain
(IASP definition: "An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with, or resembling that associated with, actual or potential tissue damage")
This is the formal IASP (International Association for the Study of Pain) definition. Key components: (1) sensory (nociception), (2) emotional (suffering), (3) subjective (personal experience), (4) may occur without tissue damage. Pain is whatever the patient says it is. In palliative care, we treat pain as reported, not based on objective findings.
22 A health worker who helps a terminally ill patient to end life at the patient's request is practicing …………………………………….
Euthanasia
(if worker administers lethal agent) or Assisted suicide (if patient self-administers)
ACTIVE EUTHANASIA is illegal in Uganda and most African countries. Palliative care explicitly rejects euthanasia, instead providing excellent symptom control and psychosocial support. Key distinction: Euthanasia = doctor administers lethal injection. Assisted suicide = doctor prescribes lethal medication patient takes. Both controversial; palliative care focuses on "allowing natural death" and managing suffering without hastening death.
23 The drug which is applied to vesicles caused by herpes zoster to paralyse the nerve endings and relieve pain is called …………………………………….
Lidocaine
(topical anesthetic) or Capsaicin cream
Topical 5% lidocaine patches provide local anesthesia by blocking sodium channels in damaged peripheral nerves. Applied to intact skin over painful area for 12 hours on, 12 hours off. Also: Capsaicin 8% patch (derived from chili peppers) depletes substance P from nerve endings. Both effective for post-herpetic neuralgia when oral medications fail or cause systemic side effects.
24 A stage where a particular conflict would have been resolved is called …………………………………….
Conflict Resolution (or Conflict Termination)
The process of successfully addressing and concluding a disagreement or dispute is known as conflict resolution. This stage signifies that the underlying issues have been identified, discussed, and an agreement or understanding has been reached, leading to the cessation of hostilities or tension. In some contexts, particularly in discussions of war or disputes between entities, it might also be referred to as conflict termination.
25 The first step in breaking bad news is called …………………………………….
Setting the stage
SPIKES Protocol Step 1: S = SETTING - Private, comfortable space; ensure no interruptions; involve key family members; have tissues available; sit at eye level. This preparation prevents chaotic disclosure and ensures patient readiness. Critical for therapeutic relationship and minimizing psychological trauma. Never break bad news in hallway, over phone, or when rushed.
26 In the JOHARI window, the area that is unknown to self but known to others is called …………………………………….
Blind area (or "Blind self")
JOHARI Window 4 quadrants: (1) Open self (known to self & others), (2) Blind self (unknown to self but known to others), (3) Hidden self (known to self but hidden from others), (4) Unknown self (unknown to both). In palliative care, feedback from team can help patients see blind spots (e.g., how their anxiety affects family). Important for self-awareness and therapeutic communication.
27 The first step in effective pain management is a thorough …………………………………….
Pain assessment
Must assess: (1) Intensity (scale 0-10), (2) Location and radiation, (3) Quality (sharp, dull, burning), (4) Pattern (continuous, intermittent), (5) Aggravating/relieving factors, (6) Impact on function/sleep, (7) Current meds and effectiveness, (8) Patient's goals. Use tools: Wong-Baker faces (children), numeric rating scale (adults), PAINAD (dementia). Reassess after every intervention. Foundation of WHO ladder.
28 Termination of all biological functions that sustain an organism is regarded as …………………………………….
Death (biological death)
Clinical death = cessation of heartbeat and breathing. Biological death = irreversible loss of all brain functions including brainstem. In palliative care, emphasis is on "whole brain death" criteria. Uniform Determination of Death Act (UDDA) standard. Important for organ donation, discontinuation of life support, and certification of death. Distinct from social death (when person is treated as dead before biological death).
29 In most African traditions the end of the mourning period for the deceased is marked by a traditional function referred to as …………………………………….
Cleansing ceremony (or "Okuzukuka", "Matanga", "Kulombola" depending on ethnic group)
Varies by culture: In Uganda - Bakiga: "Okuzukuka" (coming out of mourning), Baganda: "Okwabya Olumbe" (removing death), Basoga: "Kulombola". Rituals involve: slaughtering animal, shaving hair, washing with herbs, feasting, redistributing deceased's property. Marks transition from intense grief to re-engagement with community. Prevents prolonged grief disorder by providing structure. Important for nurses to understand and respect these rituals.
30 Progressive illnesses whose symptoms cannot be eased by any form of treatment are collectively referred to as …………………………………….
Terminal illnesses
In palliative care, "terminal" indicates disease is incurable and will lead to death. However, the phrase "cannot be eased" is concerning - palliative care can ease virtually ALL symptoms through skilled intervention. Better term: "Refractory symptoms" - those not relieved by standard interventions. These require specialized palliative techniques (sedation, nerve blocks, ketamine). Examples: refractory dyspnea, terminal agitation, intractable pain.