UNMEB June 2023 Anatomy & First Aid CM 11
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Anatomy I + First Aid UNMEB 2023 CM Revision Guide
SECTION A: Objective Questions (20 marks)
💡 Exam Strategy: Anatomy and Physiology questions test both memorization and application. Focus on key concepts like "structure-function relationships" and "clinical relevance."
1
Which of the following terms does the nurse record to refer to the blood ejected from the heart at every given minute?
a) Blood volume
b) Cardiac output
c) Cardiac capacity
d) Venous return
(b) Cardiac output
Cardiac output (CO) is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, calculated as: CO = Stroke Volume × Heart Rate. Normal adult CO is 4-8 L/min. This is a critical hemodynamic parameter that nurses monitor to assess cardiac function and tissue perfusion. Blood volume is total blood in body (~5L), cardiac capacity is not a standard term, and venous return is blood returning to the heart.
(a) Blood volume: Total amount of blood in circulation (~5L in adults); not specific to cardiac ejection rate.
(c) Cardiac capacity: Not a standard medical term; may refer informally to cardiac reserve, but not used in clinical documentation.
(d) Venous return: Blood returning to the heart from systemic circulation; opposite of cardiac output.
(c) Cardiac capacity: Not a standard medical term; may refer informally to cardiac reserve, but not used in clinical documentation.
(d) Venous return: Blood returning to the heart from systemic circulation; opposite of cardiac output.
HEART OUTPUT: "CO = SV × HR" - Cardiac Output = Stroke Volume × Heart Rate. Normal = 4-8 L/min
2
Which of the following stages of red blood cell development is characterized with more haemoglobin?
a) Pre-erythroblast
b) Erythroblast
c) Normoblast
d) Reticuloblast
(c) Normoblast
Normoblast (also called erythroblast) is the stage where hemoglobin synthesis peaks. As RBCs mature, hemoglobin accumulates progressively: Pre-erythroblast (minimal) → Erythroblast (increasing) → Normoblast (maximum) → Reticulocyte (loses nucleus but retains hemoglobin). The normoblast stage shows intense basophilic cytoplasm due to high hemoglobin content, preparing for oxygen transport function.
(a) Pre-erythroblast: Earliest stage; minimal hemoglobin; primarily contains RNA and organelles for protein synthesis.
(b) Erythroblast: Hemoglobin synthesis begins but is not maximal; cell still dividing.
(d) Reticuloblast (Reticulocyte): Nearly mature RBC; has hemoglobin but less cellular machinery than normoblast.
(b) Erythroblast: Hemoglobin synthesis begins but is not maximal; cell still dividing.
(d) Reticuloblast (Reticulocyte): Nearly mature RBC; has hemoglobin but less cellular machinery than normoblast.
🔬 RBC Maturation: "P-E-N-R" - Pre-erythroblast → Erythroblast → Normoblast → Reticulocyte. Hemoglobin increases as nucleus shrinks and is expelled.
3
Maturation of lymphocytes occurs in the
a) Bone marrow
b) Thyroid
c) Spleen
d) Thymus
(d) Thymus
T-lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland through positive and negative selection processes that ensure they can recognize foreign antigens but not self-antigens. This occurs primarily in childhood and adolescence before thymic involution. B-lymphocytes mature in bone marrow (hence "B" for bone), but the thymus is specifically for T-cell maturation, making it the classic answer for lymphocyte maturation.
(a) Bone marrow: Site of B-lymphocyte maturation and all lymphocyte production, but not T-cell maturation.
(b) Thyroid: Endocrine gland producing thyroid hormones; no immunological function in lymphocyte maturation.
(c) Spleen:Secondary lymphoid organ where immune responses occur, not primary maturation site.
(b) Thyroid: Endocrine gland producing thyroid hormones; no immunological function in lymphocyte maturation.
(c) Spleen:Secondary lymphoid organ where immune responses occur, not primary maturation site.
LYMPHOCYTE MATURATION: "T for Thymus, B for Bone" - T-cells mature in Thymus, B-cells mature in Bone marrow
4
Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the anatomy of an organ?
a) Size
b) Cell type
c) Function
d) Shape
(c) Function
Function is a physiological concept, not an anatomical one. Anatomy is the study of structure - including size, shape, cell types, tissue organization, and spatial relationships. Function (physiology) describes what an organ does. While structure-function relationships are closely linked, function is technically separate from anatomy. This is a classic distinction tested in A&P courses.
(a) Size: IS an aspect of anatomy - macroscopic dimension measurements are fundamental anatomical descriptors.
(b) Cell type: IS an aspect of anatomy - histology (microscopic anatomy) classifies organs by their cellular composition.
(d) Shape: IS an aspect of anatomy - organs are described by their morphology (spherical, fusiform, irregular, etc.).
(b) Cell type: IS an aspect of anatomy - histology (microscopic anatomy) classifies organs by their cellular composition.
(d) Shape: IS an aspect of anatomy - organs are described by their morphology (spherical, fusiform, irregular, etc.).
📚 Anatomy vs Physiology: Anatomy = "What is it?" (structure), Physiology = "What does it do?" (function). The two are inseparable but distinct disciplines.
5
Enzymes are made up of
a) Carbohydrates
b) Steroids
c) Fats
d) Proteins
(d) Proteins
Enzymes are biological catalysts composed of protein molecules (except for some RNA enzymes called ribozymes). They have specific tertiary and quaternary structures that create active sites for substrate binding. Made of amino acid chains folded into precise 3D shapes. The protein nature allows them to be sensitive to pH, temperature, and regulatory molecules, enabling precise metabolic control.
(a) Carbohydrates: Provide energy and structural support; cannot catalyze reactions due to limited functional groups.
(b) Steroids: Lipid molecules (e.g., cholesterol, hormones); function as hormones/membrane components, not catalysts.
(c) Fats: Lipids for energy storage and membranes; lack complex structure needed for catalytic activity.
(b) Steroids: Lipid molecules (e.g., cholesterol, hormones); function as hormones/membrane components, not catalysts.
(c) Fats: Lipids for energy storage and membranes; lack complex structure needed for catalytic activity.
ENZYME STRUCTURE: "Protein in nature, specific in action, sensitive to pH and temperature, ending in '-ase'"
6
Which of the following cell organelles is directly associated with cell division?
a) Golgi apparatus
b) Lysosomes
c) Centrioles
d) Ribosomes
(c) Centrioles
Centrioles are cylindrical structures made of microtubules that form the spindle apparatus during mitosis. They duplicate before prophase and migrate to opposite poles, organizing microtubules that attach to chromosomes and pull them apart. They are the main microtubule organizing centers (MTOCs) of animal cells. Essential for accurate chromosome segregation and cytokinesis.
(a) Golgi apparatus:Modifies and packages proteins; not directly involved in chromosome movement.
(b) Lysosomes:Contain digestive enzymes for waste breakdown; function in cell maintenance, not division.
(d) Ribosomes:Protein synthesis machinery; active during division but don't participate in the mechanics of division.
(b) Lysosomes:Contain digestive enzymes for waste breakdown; function in cell maintenance, not division.
(d) Ribosomes:Protein synthesis machinery; active during division but don't participate in the mechanics of division.
🔬 Cell Division Stages: Prophase (centrioles duplicate and move), Metaphase (spindle forms), Anaphase (chromosomes separate), Telophase (nuclear envelopes reform)
7
Which of the following mechanisms of cellular transport depends on blood pressure?
a) Filtration
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytes
d) Active transport
(a) Filtration
Filtration is the movement of water and solutes across a semipermeable membrane due to a pressure gradient. In the body, blood pressure (hydrostatic pressure) drives filtration at the glomerulus (urine formation), capillary beds (tissue fluid formation), and lymphatic system. The pressure pushes fluid through pores in the membrane, while larger molecules are retained. Directly proportional to pressure difference.
(b) Diffusion:Depends on concentration gradient, not pressure; passive movement down gradient.
(c) Phagocytosis:Active cellular process requiring energy; engulfment of particles, not pressure-dependent.
(d) Active transport:Requires ATP energy to move against gradient; independent of pressure.
(c) Phagocytosis:Active cellular process requiring energy; engulfment of particles, not pressure-dependent.
(d) Active transport:Requires ATP energy to move against gradient; independent of pressure.
PRESSURE-DRIVEN TRANSPORT: "Filtration follows pressure" - Blood pressure → Glomerular filtration, Capillary filtration
8
The digestive tract is lined up by the ........................................membrane
a) Serous
b) Synovial
c) Mucous
d) Cutaneous
(c) Mucous
The entire digestive tract is lined by mucous membrane (mucosa) - a moist epithelial tissue that secretes mucus to protect against mechanical abrasion, chemical digestion, and pathogens. Composed of epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae. Specialized cells include goblet cells (mucus), enteroendocrine cells (hormones), and absorptive cells. In the stomach, it's protected by thick alkaline mucus; in intestines, it's adapted for absorption with microvilli.
(a) Serous: Lines closed body cavities (peritoneum, pleura, pericardium); secretes lubricating fluid, not found in digestive lumen.
(b) Synovial: Lines joint cavities; secretes synovial fluid for lubrication; unrelated to digestive tract.
(d) Cutaneous:Skin (epidermis + dermis); dry, keratinized, protective; lines external body surface, not internal organs.
(b) Synovial: Lines joint cavities; secretes synovial fluid for lubrication; unrelated to digestive tract.
(d) Cutaneous:Skin (epidermis + dermis); dry, keratinized, protective; lines external body surface, not internal organs.
🦠 Mucous vs Mucus: MUCOUS = membrane type, MUCUS = the slimy secretion. The mucous membrane secretes mucus!
9
Which of the following combinations represent the correct pairing of an organelle with its function?
a) Ribosomes -- DNA and RNA production
b) Mitochondria -- ATP production
c) Rough ER -- digestion of old cell parts
d) Golgi apparatus -- protein synthesis
(b) Mitochondria -- ATP production
Mitochondria are the "powerhouses" of the cell - site of aerobic cellular respiration and oxidative phosphorylation, producing ATP. Contain their own DNA and double membrane. The inner membrane's cristae house the electron transport chain. A single cell may contain 1000-2000 mitochondria, especially metabolically active cells like cardiomyocytes. This is the most fundamental and accurate organelle-function pairing in cell biology.
(a) Ribosomes:Protein synthesis, NOT DNA/RNA production; DNA is in nucleus, RNA is transcribed there.
(c) Rough ER:Protein synthesis and processing; lysosomes digest old cell parts, not rough ER.
(d) Golgi apparatus:Modifies, sorts, and packages proteins; protein synthesis occurs on ribosomes.
(c) Rough ER:Protein synthesis and processing; lysosomes digest old cell parts, not rough ER.
(d) Golgi apparatus:Modifies, sorts, and packages proteins; protein synthesis occurs on ribosomes.
ORGANELLE FUNCTIONS: "Mighty Mitochondria Make ATP, Ribosomes Read RNA, Golgi Gets Packages Ready, Lysosomes Liquefy Leftovers"
10
Which of the following parts of the bone articulates with the acetabulum?
a) Femoral head
b) Trochanter of the femur
c) The sacrum
d) Humeral head
(a) Femoral head
The femoral head (head of femur) is the spherical proximal end that articulates with the acetabulum of the hip bone, forming the hip joint (acetabulofemoral joint). This is a ball-and-socket synovial joint allowing flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation. The head is covered by hyaline cartilage and receives blood supply from the ligamentum teres and retinacular vessels. Essential for weight-bearing and locomotion.
(b) Trochanter: Large bony prominences (greater/lesser) for muscle attachment, not joint articulation.
(c) Sacrum: Forms sacroiliac joint with ilium, not acetabulum; part of axial skeleton.
(d) Humeral head: Articulates with glenoid cavity of scapula to form shoulder joint.
(c) Sacrum: Forms sacroiliac joint with ilium, not acetabulum; part of axial skeleton.
(d) Humeral head: Articulates with glenoid cavity of scapula to form shoulder joint.
🦴 Hip Joint Anatomy: The acetabulum is formed by fusion of ilium, ischium, and pubis. The femoral head fits perfectly like a ball in socket - strongest joint in body!
11
Which of the following bones is NOT found on the skull?
a) Hyoid
b) Zygomatic
c) Mandible
d) Sphenoid
(a) Hyoid
The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone in the anterior neck, suspended between the mandible and larynx. It's the only bone in the body that does not articulate directly with any other bone (floats in muscular attachments). Supports tongue and serves as attachment for suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles. While it's craniofacial in origin, it's not part of the skull proper (neurocranium or viscerocranium). Often fractured in strangulation cases.
(b) Zygomatic: IS a skull bone - cheek bone, forms lateral orbital rim and part of orbit.
(c) Mandible: IS a skull bone - lower jaw, only movable skull bone.
(d) Sphenoid: IS a skull bone - bat-shaped bone forming base of cranium, houses pituitary gland.
(c) Mandible: IS a skull bone - lower jaw, only movable skull bone.
(d) Sphenoid: IS a skull bone - bat-shaped bone forming base of cranium, houses pituitary gland.
SKULL BONES: "PEST OF 6" - Parietal, Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Temporal, Occipital, Frontal (cranial) + Mandible, Maxilla, Zygomatic, Nasal, Vomer, Palatine, Lacrimal (facial)
12
The cells responsible for the formation of new bone are
a) Osteocytes
b) Lacunae
c) Osteoblasts
d) Osteoclasts
(c) Osteoblasts
Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells derived from mesenchymal stem cells. They synthesize and secrete osteoid (organic matrix of collagen and proteins), which then mineralizes with calcium phosphate to form new bone. Active osteoblasts are cuboidal and line the bone surface. When they become surrounded by matrix, they differentiate into osteocytes (mature bone cells). Osteoblasts respond to mechanical stress (Wolff's law) and hormones (PTH, vitamin D, calcitonin).
(a) Osteocytes:Mature bone cells within lacunae; maintain bone but do not form new bone actively.
(b) Lacunae:Small cavities/spaces containing osteocytes; not cells themselves.
(d) Osteoclasts:Bone-resorbing cells (break down bone); opposite function of osteoblasts.
(b) Lacunae:Small cavities/spaces containing osteocytes; not cells themselves.
(d) Osteoclasts:Bone-resorbing cells (break down bone); opposite function of osteoblasts.
BONE CELLS: "BLAST builds, CLAST consumes, CYTE maintains" - Osteoblasts build bone, Osteoclasts break bone, Osteocytes maintain bone
13
Intramuscular injections are commonly administered in the gluteus ........................................ muscles
a) maximus and biceps
b) medius and deltoid
c) maximus and biceps
d) medius and triceps
(b) medius and deltoid
The ventrogluteal site (gluteus medius) is the preferred IM injection site in adults as it avoids the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels. The deltoid muscle is used for smaller volumes (1-2 mL) in upper arm. Gluteus maximus (dorsogluteal) is no longer recommended due to risk of sciatic nerve injury. "Biceps" and "triceps" are arm muscles, not gluteal muscles. The question appears to have a typo but the best answer is gluteus medius + deltoid.
(a) maximus and biceps: Gluteus maximus site is contraindicated; biceps is not a standard IM site.
(c) maximus and biceps:Duplicate option; both inappropriate injection sites.
(d) medius and triceps: Gluteus medius is correct but triceps is not standard for IM injections.
(c) maximus and biceps:Duplicate option; both inappropriate injection sites.
(d) medius and triceps: Gluteus medius is correct but triceps is not standard for IM injections.
💉 IM Injection Safety: Ventrogluteal (gluteus medius) is SAFEST - away from sciatic nerve, no major vessels, good muscle mass. Use deltoid for volumes <2mL in adults.
14
The least common ABO blood group is type
a) O
b) B
c) A
d) AB
(d) AB
AB blood group is the rarest (universal recipient) with prevalence of ~4% in most populations. Group O is most common (~45%), followed by A (~40%), then B (~11%). AB has both A and B antigens on RBCs and no anti-A/anti-B antibodies in plasma. Can receive from any ABO type. Important for blood transfusion planning and emergency management. Rarity makes AB blood donations particularly valuable.
(a) Type O: MOST common (~45%); universal donor for RBCs.
(b) Type B: Moderately common (~11%); more prevalent in Asian populations.
(c) Type A: Second most common (~40%); can receive from A and O.
(b) Type B: Moderately common (~11%); more prevalent in Asian populations.
(c) Type A: Second most common (~40%); can receive from A and O.
ABO PREVALENCE: "O-A-B-AB" in order from most to least common. "O gives to all, AB receives from all"
15
Which of the following cells play a major role in initiating the clotting cascade?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Monocytes
c) Platelets
d) Eosinophils
(c) Platelets
Platelets (thrombocytes) initiate hemostasis through adhesion, activation, and aggregation. When vascular injury occurs, platelets adhere to exposed collagen fibers via von Willebrand factor (vWF), become activated, and release chemical signals (ADP, serotonin, calcium ions, enzymes, prostaglandins) that recruit more platelets. They also provide phospholipid surface for coagulation factors to assemble and initiate the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting cascades, ultimately leading to fibrin formation.
(a) Erythrocytes: Red blood cells; carry oxygen, not involved in clotting initiation (though they get trapped in clot).
(b) Monocytes: Phagocytic cells; become macrophages; indirect role in clot dissolution, not initiation.
(d) Eosinophils: Granulocytes for parasite defense and allergic reactions; no role in coagulation.
(b) Monocytes: Phagocytic cells; become macrophages; indirect role in clot dissolution, not initiation.
(d) Eosinophils: Granulocytes for parasite defense and allergic reactions; no role in coagulation.
CLOTTING CASCADE: "Platelets Plug First" - Adhesion → Activation → Aggregation → Coagulation → Clot
16
Which of the following substances is NOT transported by blood plasma?
a) Nutrients
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hormones
(b) Oxygen
Oxygen is primarily transported bound to hemoglobin within red blood cells (RBCs), not dissolved in plasma. Only about 1-2% of O₂ is carried dissolved in plasma. The vast majority (98%) is bound to hemoglobin's iron-containing heme groups as oxyhemoglobin. This is a critical distinction - oxygen is transported in cells, not plasma. Plasma carries CO₂ (mostly as bicarbonate), nutrients (glucose, amino acids, lipids), hormones, and waste products.
(a) Nutrients: ARE transported in plasma - glucose, amino acids, fatty acids are dissolved or bound to carrier proteins.
(c) Carbon dioxide: IS transported in plasma - mostly as bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) after conversion by carbonic anhydrase.
(d) Hormones: ARE transported in plasma - peptide hormones dissolved, steroid hormones bound to carrier proteins.
(c) Carbon dioxide: IS transported in plasma - mostly as bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) after conversion by carbonic anhydrase.
(d) Hormones: ARE transported in plasma - peptide hormones dissolved, steroid hormones bound to carrier proteins.
🩸 Oxygen Transport: Hemoglobin increases O₂ carrying capacity by 70-fold compared to plasma alone! Each Hb molecule carries 4 O₂ molecules.
17
Blood leaves the heart during
a) Ventricular systole
b) Atrial systole
c) Ventricular diastole
d) Atrial diastole
(a) Ventricular systole
Ventricular systole is the contraction phase where blood is ejected from the ventricles. The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta (systemic circulation), while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery (pulmonary circulation). This creates the systolic blood pressure (top number in BP reading). Atrial systole only tops up ventricles (atrial kick), while diastole is relaxation/filling phase.
(b) Atrial systole: Atria contract to fill ventricles with final 20-30% of blood; majority of ventricular filling is passive during diastole.
(c) Ventricular diastole: Ventricular relaxation and filling phase; blood enters, not leaves.
(d) Atrial diastole: Atrial relaxation phase; blood returns to atria from vena cavae/pulmonary veins.
(c) Ventricular diastole: Ventricular relaxation and filling phase; blood enters, not leaves.
(d) Atrial diastole: Atrial relaxation phase; blood returns to atria from vena cavae/pulmonary veins.
CARDIAC CYCLE: "Squeeze and Fill" - Systole = Squeeze (eject), Diastole = Dilate (fill)
18
A person who regularly gives first aid should at least be immunized against
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Rubella
d) HIV
(b) Hepatitis B
Hepatitis B vaccination is mandatory for all healthcare workers and first aiders due to high risk of exposure to blood and body fluids. HBV is transmitted percutaneously and can survive outside the body for 7 days. First aiders may encounter bleeding wounds, making them vulnerable. The vaccine provides >95% protection. WHO recommends 3-dose series (0, 1, 6 months). Hepatitis A is fecal-oral, less relevant. Rubella is vaccine-preventable but lower priority. No HIV vaccine exists yet.
(a) Hepatitis A: Fecal-oral transmission; lower risk for first aiders compared to bloodborne pathogens.
(c) Rubella: Respiratory transmission; important for pregnant women but not specifically for first aid providers.
(d) HIV:No vaccine exists; prevention relies on standard precautions and post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
(c) Rubella: Respiratory transmission; important for pregnant women but not specifically for first aid providers.
(d) HIV:No vaccine exists; prevention relies on standard precautions and post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
💉 First Aider Protection: Hep B vaccine is ESSENTIAL. Also ensure tetanus is up to date. Always use gloves and face mask for bleeding patients!
19
The nurse records shock which occurs from acute loss of body fluids as
a) Neurogenic
b) Haemorrhagic
c) Hypovolaemic
d) Cardiogenic
(c) Hypovolaemic
Hypovolaemic shock is the correct term for shock resulting from acute loss of body fluids - whether blood (hemorrhagic), plasma (burns), or other fluids (vomiting, diarrhea). It involves decreased circulating volume → reduced venous return → decreased cardiac output → inadequate tissue perfusion. Characterized by tachycardia, hypotension, cool clammy skin, decreased urine output. Requires fluid resuscitation (crystalloids, blood products) and treatment of underlying cause.
(a) Neurogenic shock: Due to loss of sympathetic tone (spinal cord injury, anesthesia); vasodilation, warm dry skin, bradycardia.
(b) Haemorrhagic:Type of hypovolaemic shock specifically from blood loss; more specific than the general term requested.
(d) Cardiogenic shock: Due to pump failure (MI, cardiomyopathy); fluid volume is normal but cardiac output is low.
(b) Haemorrhagic:Type of hypovolaemic shock specifically from blood loss; more specific than the general term requested.
(d) Cardiogenic shock: Due to pump failure (MI, cardiomyopathy); fluid volume is normal but cardiac output is low.
SHOCK CLASSIFICATION: "H-N-C-O" - Hypovolaemic, Neurogenic, Cardiogenic, Obstructive, Distributive (Septic, Anaphylactic)
20
Which of the following is NOT a sign of a fracture?
a) Paralysis
b) Tenderness
c) Swelling
d) Deformity
(a) Paralysis
Paralysis is NOT a direct sign of fracture. While a fracture can theoretically cause nerve damage leading to paralysis (especially in spinal fractures), paralysis itself is a neurological deficit, not a musculoskeletal sign. The classic signs of fracture are the "5 D's": Deformity, Discoloration, Dimpling, Denuded skin, and Crepitus (1 C). Tenderness and swelling are cardinal signs. Paralysis suggests nerve/spinal cord injury, which is a complication, not a fracture sign itself.
(b) Tenderness: IS a sign - pain on palpation over fracture site due to periosteal injury.
(c) Swelling: IS a sign - hematoma and inflammatory response from tissue damage and bleeding.
(d) Deformity: IS a sign - angulation, shortening, rotation from displaced fracture fragments.
(c) Swelling: IS a sign - hematoma and inflammatory response from tissue damage and bleeding.
(d) Deformity: IS a sign - angulation, shortening, rotation from displaced fracture fragments.
🦴 Fracture Signs: Always assess for neurovascular compromise (circulation, sensation, movement) - paralysis may indicate nerve injury requiring urgent intervention!
SECTION B: Fill in the Blank Spaces (10 marks)
21
The scientific name for white blood cells is............................................................
Leukocytes
Leukocytes (from Greek "leukos" = white, "cyte" = cell) are the cellular components of the immune system. Normal count: 4,000-11,000 cells/µL. Classified into granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) and agranulocytes (lymphocytes, monocytes). They defend against infection, produce antibodies, and remove debris.
22
The percentage of plasma in human blood is ..........................................%
55%
Blood is composed of ~55% plasma (liquid component) and ~45% formed elements (cells). Plasma is 90% water, 7% proteins (albumin, globulins, fibrinogen), and 3% other solutes. This proportion is important for calculating blood volume and understanding hematocrit values.
23
Humoral immunity is also referred to as............................................................
Antibody-mediated immunity
Humoral immunity involves production of antibodies (immunoglobulins) by B-lymphocytes/plasma cells that circulate in blood and lymph. Antibodies bind to antigens, neutralizing pathogens and marking them for destruction. Complement system activation is part of humoral immunity. Contrasts with cell-mediated immunity (T-cells).
24
Natural killer cells eliminate foreign cells by damaging their............................................................
Cell membranes (or plasma membranes)
NK cells are lymphocytes that kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization. They release perforins (create pores) and granzymes (induce apoptosis) that damage target cell membranes, causing lysis. Part of innate immune system, providing first line defense against intracellular pathogens.
25
Carbondioxide is transported in blood mainly as............................................................
Bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻)
~70% of CO₂ travels as bicarbonate ions in plasma. Reaction: CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃ ⇌ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻, catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase in RBCs. ~20% is bound to hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin, and ~10% is dissolved in plasma. This system is crucial for pH buffering and gas exchange at lungs and tissues.
26
The largest organ of the lymphatic system is the ............................................................
Spleen
The spleen filters blood, removes old RBCs, stores platelets, and is a major site of immune response (lymphocyte activation, antibody production). Located in LUQ of abdomen. Weighs ~150g. Unlike lymph nodes that filter lymph, spleen filters blood. Also acts as reservoir for blood in emergencies.
27
The longest and strongest bone in the human body is the ............................................................
Femur
Femur (thigh bone) extends from hip to knee, length ~48cm (19 inches) in adults. Supports entire body weight during standing/walking. Has largest bone head, strongest bone shaft. Resists forces up to 2,500 lbs. Contains bone marrow for hematopoiesis. Critical for locomotion and upright posture.
28
A type of bandage used to construct slings that support soft tissue injuries is called ........................................................... bandage.
Triangular bandage
Triangular bandage (cravat) made of cotton cloth (~1m x 1m x 1.4m). Most versatile first aid material. Can be folded into sling for arm injuries, used as swathe, tourniquet, head bandage, or splint tie. Essential component of first aid kits. Reusable after washing. Cost-effective and multi-purpose.
29
Any life threatening condition requiring quick action in order to save life is classified as ............................................................
Emergency (or Medical Emergency)
Medical emergency involves immediate threat to life, limb, or sight. Requires prompt intervention to prevent death or disability. Examples: cardiac arrest, severe bleeding, choking, anaphylaxis, shock, stroke. The "golden hour" concept emphasizes need for treatment within 60 minutes for trauma patients.
30
A break in the continuity of a bone is called a ............................................................
Fracture
Fracture = disruption of bone cortex. Classified as: simple/closed (skin intact), compound/open (skin broken), comminuted (multiple fragments), greenstick (incomplete, common in children), pathological (through diseased bone), stress (hairline from overuse). Requires immobilization and sometimes reduction.
SECTION B: Short Essay Questions (10 marks)
31
(a) State five (5) functions of the stomach. (5 marks)
Stomach functions in digestion and beyond:
1. Mechanical digestion: Churns food via muscular contractions, mixing it with gastric secretions to form semi-liquid chyme.
2. Chemical digestion of proteins: Pepsin (activated from pepsinogen by HCl) begins protein breakdown into polypeptides.
3. Storage reservoir: Holds large meals (1-2 liters) for 2-4 hours, releasing chyme slowly into duodenum for optimal absorption.
4. Secretion of intrinsic factor: Glycoprotein essential for vitamin B12 absorption in ileum; deficiency leads to pernicious anemia.
5. Defense against pathogens: Highly acidic environment (pH 1.5-3.5) kills most ingested bacteria and viruses.
STOMACH FUNCTIONS: "M-C-S-S-D" - Mechanical churning, Chemical digestion, Storage, Secretion (intrinsic factor), Defense
(b) List five (5) sub-divisions of the large intestines. (5 marks)
1. Caecum: Blind pouch at ileocecal junction; contains appendix.
2. Ascending colon: Travels up right side of abdomen from caecum to hepatic flexure.
3. Transverse colon: Crosses abdomen horizontally from hepatic to splenic flexure.
4. Descending colon: Travels down left side from splenic flexure to sigmoid colon.
5. Sigmoid colon: S-shaped segment connecting descending colon to rectum.
6. Rectum: Final straight segment leading to anal canal (some classifications include this).
📏 Large Intestine Order: "C-A-T-D-S-R" - Caecum, Ascending, Transverse, Descending, Sigmoid, Rectum
32
(a) State five (5) roles of a first aider. (5 marks)
First aider's primary roles in emergency care:
1. Assess the scene and ensure safety: Check for hazards to self, casualty, and bystanders. Prevent secondary injuries. "Scene safe, I'm safe, casualty safe."
2. Assess casualty and identify priorities: Primary survey (ABCDE) to identify life-threatening conditions. Rapidly determine unconsciousness, breathing, circulation status.
3. Provide immediate life-saving interventions: Control severe bleeding, open airway, perform CPR, treat shock, manage choking, prevent hypothermia.
4. Arrange prompt transfer to medical facility: Activate emergency services (call 999/112), provide clear location and casualty condition, arrange transport if needed.
5. Provide psychological support and reassurance: Calm and reassure conscious casualty, bystanders, and relatives. Reduce anxiety and prevent panic.
(b) Outline five (5) first aid management actions that should be performed for a patient whose leg is bleeding severely. (5 marks)
1. Apply direct firm pressure: Use gloved hand and sterile gauze/dressing to press directly on wound for 10 minutes continuous pressure. This promotes platelet aggregation and clot formation.
2. Elevate the limb: Raise leg above heart level to reduce hydrostatic pressure and slow bleeding, provided no fracture is suspected.
3. Apply pressure bandage: If bleeding persists, apply pressure bandage over dressing. Ensure distal circulation is not compromised (check pulse, color, sensation).
4. Apply arterial pressure point: If life-threatening, compress femoral artery in groin against pelvic bone to reduce blood flow to limb.
5. Use tourniquet as last resort: For catastrophic bleeding not controlled by other measures. Apply 2-3 inches proximal to wound, tighten until bleeding stops. Record time applied.
🩸 Severe Bleeding Priority: LIFE OVER LIMB. Tourniquet use for >2 hours risks tissue damage, but death from exsanguination is immediate danger!
SECTION C: Long Essay Questions (50 marks)
33
(a) Describe five (5) classifications of synovial joints. (10 marks)
(b) Draw a well labelled diagram of the hip joint. (10 marks)
(c) State five (5) functions of synovial fluid. (5 marks)
(b) Draw a well labelled diagram of the hip joint. (10 marks)
(c) State five (5) functions of synovial fluid. (5 marks)
(a) Classifications of Synovial Joints:
1. Ball-and-socket joints (Spheroid): Spherical head fits into cup-like socket. Permits movement in all planes: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction. Examples: shoulder (glenohumeral), hip (acetabulofemoral). Most mobile but least stable.
2. Hinge joints (Ginglymus): Convex surface fits into concave surface. Allows movement in one plane only (uniaxial): flexion and extension. Examples: elbow (humeroulnar), knee (tibiofemoral), ankle, interphalangeal joints. Strong and stable.
3. Pivot joints (Trochoid): Cylindrical bone rotates within ring of bone and ligament. Allows rotation around longitudinal axis. Examples: atlantoaxial joint (C1-C2 rotation of head), proximal radioulnar joint (pronation/supination). Uniaxial movement.
4. Gliding/Plane joints (Arthrodial): Flat articular surfaces slide over each other. Allows limited multi-directional movement (gliding). Examples: intercarpal joints, intertarsal joints, facet joints of vertebrae. Most stable with limited mobility.
5. Condyloid/Ellipsoidal joints: Oval convex surface fits into elliptical concavity. Allows biaxial movement: flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, limited rotation. Examples: wrist (radiocarpal), metacarpophalangeal joints (knuckles). More mobile than hinge but less than ball-and-socket.
🔧 Joint Mobility vs Stability: More mobility = less stability. Ball-and-socket (most mobile, least stable) ←→ Plane (most stable, least mobile)
(b) Hip Joint Diagram Description:
🎨 
Should show:

Should show:
- Bones: Femoral head, acetabulum (ilium, ischium, pubis), femoral neck, greater/lesser trochanter
- Ligaments: Iliofemoral (Y-ligament), pubofemoral, ischiofemoral ligaments
- Other structures: Articular cartilage, synovial membrane, joint capsule, ligamentum teres (with artery), acetabular labrum
(c) Functions of Synovial Fluid:
1. Lubrication: Reduces friction between articular cartilage surfaces during movement, allowing smooth, pain-free motion.
2. Nutrition: Supplies oxygen and nutrients to avascular articular cartilage, removes metabolic waste products.
3. Shock absorption: Provides cushioning effect during weight-bearing activities, distributing load evenly across joint surfaces.
4. Joint cleansing: Contains phagocytic cells that remove debris, microbes, and wear particles from joint cavity.
5. Maintains joint stability: Creates slight negative pressure within joint capsule, helping to hold bones together and prevent dislocation.
SYNOVIAL FLUID FUNCTIONS: "L-N-S-C-M" - Lubrication, Nutrition, Shock absorption, Cleansing, Maintenance
34
(a) List ten (10) essential components of a first aid kit. (5 marks)
(b) State ten (10) steps involved in the procedure of applying a roller/crepe bandage. (10 marks)
(c) State five (5) observations that a first aider must make on a patient who he/she has bandaged. (10 marks)
(b) State ten (10) steps involved in the procedure of applying a roller/crepe bandage. (10 marks)
(c) State five (5) observations that a first aider must make on a patient who he/she has bandaged. (10 marks)
(a) Essential First Aid Kit Components:
1. Sterile gauze pads (assorted sizes): For covering wounds and absorbing blood.
2. Adhesive bandages (plasters): For minor cuts and abrasions.
3. Roller bandages (crepe/ACE): For securing dressings and providing compression.
4. Triangular bandages: For slings and immobilization.
5. Adhesive tape: For securing bandages and splints.
6. Antiseptic wipes/solution: For cleaning wounds (chlorhexidine or povidone-iodine).
7. Scissors and tweezers: For cutting bandages and removing splinters.
8. Disposable gloves: For infection control.
9. CPR face shield/mask: For safe resuscitation.
10. Emergency blanket: For preventing hypothermia in shock patients.
(b) Steps for Applying Roller/Crepe Bandage:
1. Ensure safety and explain procedure: Gain consent, position patient comfortably, expose area while maintaining dignity.
2. Select appropriate bandage size: Choose width based on limb size (7.5cm for adult arm, 10cm for leg).
3. Secure starting point: Hold bandage with roll facing direction of application, anchor with one turn below wound/dressing, ensuring it's not too tight.
4. Apply at correct angle: Wrap at 30-45° angle (spiral turn), overlapping previous layer by 1/2 to 2/3 of bandage width.
5. Maintain even tension: Keep uniform firmness throughout - not too loose (will slip) nor too tight (constricts circulation).
6. Cover appropriate area: Extend several inches above and below wound/dressing; for joint support, include one joint above and below.
7. Secure end of bandage: Finish with one straight turn, cut bandage, and fix with tape, safety pin, or clips (not metal clips if near wounds).
8. Check distal circulation: Assess color, temperature, sensation, movement, and pulses (CTSM) beyond bandage. Capillary refill should be <2 seconds.
9. Ask about comfort: Patient should not feel tingling, numbness, or increased pain - signs of constriction.
10. Record and report: Document type of bandage, area covered, patient tolerance, and any complications. Reassess regularly.
(c) Observations on Bandaged Patient:
1. Circulation (Color and temperature): Check for pale, blue (cyanosis), or cold skin distal to bandage indicating impaired arterial flow.
2. Sensation and movement: Ask about numbness, tingling (paresthesia), inability to move fingers/toes - nerve compression signs.
3. Swelling (edema): Observe for increasing swelling distal to bandage suggesting venous obstruction or worsening injury.
4. Pain level changes: Increasing pain under bandage may indicate compartment syndrome, constriction, or infection.
5. Bleeding through bandage: Check for blood soaking through layers indicating ongoing hemorrhage requiring additional pressure or intervention.
👀 CTSM Check - Every 15 minutes initially: Color, Temperature, Sensation, Movement. Any compromise = LOOSEN/REMOVE bandage immediately!
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