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Table of Contents
ToggleMental Health Nursing II & Pharmacology III
Paper Code: DNE 114 | June 2024 | Duration: 3 HOURS
SECTION A: Objective Questions (20 marks)
💡 Exam Strategy: Read each question carefully! Pay special attention to "NOT" and "exclude" questions. Use the process of elimination to narrow down your choices.
1
Which of the following biological factors predisposes to suicide?
a) Genetics and decreased levels of serotonin
b) Heredity and increased levels of nor-epinephrine
c) Structural alterations of the brain
d) Temporal lobe atrophy
(a) Genetics and decreased levels of serotonin
Research strongly suggests a link between neurobiology and suicidal behavior. Decreased levels of serotonin (5-HT), a neurotransmitter involved in mood regulation, impulse control, and aggression, have been consistently found in individuals who have died by suicide or attempted suicide. Studies often show lower concentrations of serotonin metabolites (like 5-HIAA) in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of suicidal individuals. Furthermore, genetics play a role; family history of suicide is a known risk factor, suggesting a heritable component to this predisposition, which may involve genes related to serotonin function or other neurobiological pathways.
(b) Heredity and increased levels of nor-epinephrine: While heredity (genetics) is a factor, increased levels of norepinephrine are more commonly associated with anxiety, stress responses, and mania, rather than being a primary predisposing factor for suicide directly. Some studies suggest dysregulation of the noradrenegic system in depression, but the link to suicide is less direct and consistent than that of serotonin.
(c) Structural alterations of the brain: While certain mental illnesses associated with suicide risk (like depression or schizophrenia) can involve structural brain alterations, this option is too general. Specific alterations in areas like the prefrontal cortex or hippocampus have been noted in some studies of suicidal individuals, often related to mood disorders, but "structural alterations" alone isn't as precise as the serotonin link.
(d) Temporal lobe atrophy: Temporal lobe atrophy is more characteristic of conditions like Alzheimer's disease or certain types of dementia or epilepsy. While individuals with these conditions might experience depression or hopelessness that increases suicide risk, temporal lobe atrophy itself is not a primary or direct biological factor predisposing to suicide across the broader population at risk.
(c) Structural alterations of the brain: While certain mental illnesses associated with suicide risk (like depression or schizophrenia) can involve structural brain alterations, this option is too general. Specific alterations in areas like the prefrontal cortex or hippocampus have been noted in some studies of suicidal individuals, often related to mood disorders, but "structural alterations" alone isn't as precise as the serotonin link.
(d) Temporal lobe atrophy: Temporal lobe atrophy is more characteristic of conditions like Alzheimer's disease or certain types of dementia or epilepsy. While individuals with these conditions might experience depression or hopelessness that increases suicide risk, temporal lobe atrophy itself is not a primary or direct biological factor predisposing to suicide across the broader population at risk.
SUICIDE RISK FACTORS: "SAD HOPELESS" - Substance abuse, Age (elderly/adolescent), Depression, Hopelessness, Previous attempt, Occupation (access to means), Psychosis, Ethnicity, Sex (male), Social isolation, Stress
2
Priorities for nurses caring for patients with suicidal ideations exclude
a) Ruling out substance abuse
b) Establishing a therapeutic relationship
c) Implementing safety measures immediately
d) Providing education and support
(a) Ruling out substance abuse
While assessing for and addressing substance abuse is a very important part of comprehensive care for a patient with suicidal ideations (as substance abuse is a major risk factor), it is not the immediate priority compared to the other options. The question asks what is "excluded" from priorities. The other three options are all core, immediate priorities in the acute management of suicidal patients.
(b) Establishing a therapeutic relationship: This is a fundamental and immediate priority. A trusting relationship is essential for effective assessment, communication of distress by the patient, and their willingness to engage in safety planning and treatment.
(c) Implementing safety measures immediately: This is the absolute top priority. Actions include ensuring a safe environment (removing potential ligatures, sharp objects, medications), one-to-one observation if indicated, and constant reassessment of risk.
(d) Providing education and support: This is a crucial ongoing priority. Education may involve understanding their feelings, coping mechanisms, available resources, and safety plans. Support involves empathy, validation, and fostering hope.
(c) Implementing safety measures immediately: This is the absolute top priority. Actions include ensuring a safe environment (removing potential ligatures, sharp objects, medications), one-to-one observation if indicated, and constant reassessment of risk.
(d) Providing education and support: This is a crucial ongoing priority. Education may involve understanding their feelings, coping mechanisms, available resources, and safety plans. Support involves empathy, validation, and fostering hope.
🚨 IMMEDIATE PRIORITIES IN SUICIDAL PATIENTS: Safety → Relationship → Assessment → Intervention. Substance abuse assessment is part of comprehensive assessment but not the immediate priority.
3
An appropriate expected outcome for a patient being nursed with schizophrenia is client will
a) Spend 2 hours session sharing environmental observations with the nurse
b) Listen attentively and communicate clearly in 48 hours
c) Maintain reality based thoughts in 24 hours
d) Develop trust in at least 1 staff within 7 days of admission
(d) Develop trust in at least 1 staff within 7 days of admission
Developing trust is a foundational step in the care of a patient with schizophrenia, especially given that symptoms like paranoia and suspiciousness can make forming relationships difficult. An expected outcome that is realistic, measurable, and patient-centered would be for the client to develop trust in at least one staff member within a reasonable timeframe (e.g., 7 days of admission). This trust is essential for engagement in therapy, medication adherence, and overall treatment progress.
(a) Spend 2 hours session sharing environmental observations: While interacting with the nurse is positive, a 2-hour session focused on environmental observations might not be the most therapeutic or realistic initial outcome. It's also very specific and lengthy. The focus should be on building rapport and addressing core symptoms or needs.
(b) Listen attentively and communicate clearly in 48 hours: While improved communication is a desirable long-term goal, expecting a patient with schizophrenia (who may have thought disorder, alogia, or negative symptoms affecting communication) to achieve this within 48 hours is unrealistic, especially during an acute phase.
(c) Maintain reality based thoughts in 24 hours: Schizophrenia is characterized by disturbances in thought processes, including delusions and hallucinations. Expecting a patient to maintain "reality-based thoughts" completely within 24 hours of admission is highly unrealistic. Reduction in psychotic symptoms and improved reality testing is a longer-term goal achieved through medication and therapy.
(b) Listen attentively and communicate clearly in 48 hours: While improved communication is a desirable long-term goal, expecting a patient with schizophrenia (who may have thought disorder, alogia, or negative symptoms affecting communication) to achieve this within 48 hours is unrealistic, especially during an acute phase.
(c) Maintain reality based thoughts in 24 hours: Schizophrenia is characterized by disturbances in thought processes, including delusions and hallucinations. Expecting a patient to maintain "reality-based thoughts" completely within 24 hours of admission is highly unrealistic. Reduction in psychotic symptoms and improved reality testing is a longer-term goal achieved through medication and therapy.
⏰ SMART Goals: Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound. Trust-building is a realistic early goal in schizophrenia care.
4
Which of the following points to a good prognosis for schizophrenia?
a) Gradual onset
b) Good social network
c) Early onset
d) Absence of passivity phenomenon
(b) Good social network
A good social network (strong family support, friendships, community connections) is consistently associated with a better prognosis in schizophrenia. Social support can help with treatment adherence, reduce stress, provide practical assistance, improve coping skills, and reduce social isolation, all of which contribute to better outcomes, including fewer relapses and improved quality of life.
(a) Gradual onset: A gradual, insidious onset of schizophrenia is generally associated with a poorer prognosis compared to an acute or sudden onset. Gradual onset often means a longer period of untreated psychosis and more prominent negative symptoms, which are harder to treat.
(c) Early onset: Early onset of schizophrenia (e.g., in childhood or early adolescence) is typically associated with a poorer prognosis, including more severe symptoms, greater cognitive impairment, and a more chronic course. Later onset (e.g., late 20s or 30s) often has a better prognosis.
(d) Absence of passivity phenomenon: Passivity phenomena (e.g., thought insertion, withdrawal, broadcast; delusions of control) are specific types of psychotic symptoms. While the presence of severe positive symptoms can indicate an acute phase, their specific absence isn't as strong a prognostic indicator as factors like good premorbid functioning, acute onset, good social support, or predominantly positive (as opposed to negative) symptoms.
(c) Early onset: Early onset of schizophrenia (e.g., in childhood or early adolescence) is typically associated with a poorer prognosis, including more severe symptoms, greater cognitive impairment, and a more chronic course. Later onset (e.g., late 20s or 30s) often has a better prognosis.
(d) Absence of passivity phenomenon: Passivity phenomena (e.g., thought insertion, withdrawal, broadcast; delusions of control) are specific types of psychotic symptoms. While the presence of severe positive symptoms can indicate an acute phase, their specific absence isn't as strong a prognostic indicator as factors like good premorbid functioning, acute onset, good social support, or predominantly positive (as opposed to negative) symptoms.
GOOD PROGNOSIS FACTORS: "SAVE" - Sudden onset, Acute presentation, good Vocational history, good support network, Early treatment, no family history
5
Families support binge eating amidst their children when they
a) Practice mindful eating
b) Identify triggers to this habit
c) Become active in exercises as a family
d) Encourage the children to skip meals
(d) Encourage the children to skip meals
Encouraging children to skip meals is a practice that can inadvertently support or trigger binge eating. When meals are skipped, especially breakfast or lunch, it can lead to extreme hunger later in the day. This intense hunger can make it difficult to control eating behaviors, potentially leading to overeating or bingeing when food does become available. Restrictive eating patterns, including meal skipping, are known risk factors for the development and maintenance of binge eating disorder.
(a) Practice mindful eating: Practicing mindful eating (paying attention to hunger and fullness cues, savoring food, eating without distractions) is a strategy that helps to prevent or manage binge eating, not support it. It encourages a healthier relationship with food.
(b) Identify triggers to this habit: Helping children identify triggers for binge eating (e.g., stress, boredom, certain emotions, specific situations) is a constructive step in addressing and managing the behavior. This awareness is part of therapeutic interventions.
(c) Become active in exercises as a family: Engaging in regular physical activity as a family promotes overall health, can improve mood, and can be a positive coping mechanism. It is generally seen as beneficial and does not support binge eating; in fact, it can be part of a healthy lifestyle that counteracts disordered eating.
(b) Identify triggers to this habit: Helping children identify triggers for binge eating (e.g., stress, boredom, certain emotions, specific situations) is a constructive step in addressing and managing the behavior. This awareness is part of therapeutic interventions.
(c) Become active in exercises as a family: Engaging in regular physical activity as a family promotes overall health, can improve mood, and can be a positive coping mechanism. It is generally seen as beneficial and does not support binge eating; in fact, it can be part of a healthy lifestyle that counteracts disordered eating.
🍽️ BINGE EATING CYCLE: Restriction → Hunger → Binge → Guilt → Restriction. Breaking the cycle requires regular, balanced meals, not meal skipping.
6
Which of the following is the most common cause of childhood epilepsy?
a) Genetics
b) Alcohol in pregnancy
c) Birth injuries
d) Infections
(a) Genetics
While the causes of childhood epilepsy are diverse and often unknown (idiopathic), genetics play a significant role and are considered a very common underlying factor for many types of childhood epilepsy. Many specific epilepsy syndromes in children have a known or suspected genetic basis, involving mutations in single genes or complex polygenic inheritance. Some genetic epilepsies are benign and resolve with age, while others are more severe and persistent.
(b) Alcohol in pregnancy: Maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASD), which can include neurological problems and an increased risk of seizures. However, it is not considered the most common cause of childhood epilepsy overall compared to genetic factors.
(c) Birth injuries: Birth injuries, such as hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (brain damage due to lack of oxygen or blood flow during birth), can lead to epilepsy. These are significant causes, but genetic predispositions account for a larger proportion of cases when all childhood epilepsies are considered.
(d) Infections: CNS infections, such as meningitis or encephalitis, can cause seizures and lead to epilepsy as a long-term sequela due to brain scarring. Infections are a major cause of epilepsy worldwide, especially in resource-limited settings, but again, "genetics" as a broad category encompassing many syndromes is often cited as most common overall.
(c) Birth injuries: Birth injuries, such as hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (brain damage due to lack of oxygen or blood flow during birth), can lead to epilepsy. These are significant causes, but genetic predispositions account for a larger proportion of cases when all childhood epilepsies are considered.
(d) Infections: CNS infections, such as meningitis or encephalitis, can cause seizures and lead to epilepsy as a long-term sequela due to brain scarring. Infections are a major cause of epilepsy worldwide, especially in resource-limited settings, but again, "genetics" as a broad category encompassing many syndromes is often cited as most common overall.
🧬 GENETIC EPILEPSIES: Many childhood epilepsy syndromes like Dravet syndrome, West syndrome, and Lennox-Gastaut syndrome have strong genetic components. Genetic testing is increasingly available.
7
The initial nursing intervention for a patient who is aggressive and violent is to
a) Tactfully escape
b) Call for help
c) Restrain the patient
d) Seclude the patient
(b) Call for help
When a patient becomes aggressive and violent, the nurse's immediate safety and the safety of others are paramount. The initial nursing intervention should be to call for help. Attempting to manage a violent patient alone can put the nurse and the patient at increased risk of injury. Calling for help ensures that adequate staff (e.g., other nurses, security personnel, medical staff) are available to manage the situation safely and effectively, using de-escalation techniques or, if necessary, physical restraint or seclusion according to established protocols.
(a) Tactfully escape: While ensuring one's own safety is crucial, and removing oneself from immediate danger if alone and overwhelmed is important, simply escaping without summoning assistance does not address the patient's behavior or the safety of others who may be present or unaware. "Calling for help" is a more comprehensive initial action.
(c) Restrain the patient: Attempting to restrain a violent patient single-handedly is dangerous and generally contraindicated. Physical restraint should only be implemented by a trained team with sufficient numbers to ensure safety for both the patient and staff, and only as a last resort when de-escalation has failed.
(d) Seclude the patient: Seclusion, like restraint, is a restrictive intervention used as a last resort when less restrictive measures are ineffective and the patient poses an ongoing danger to self or others. It requires a team approach and is not the initial action a nurse takes immediately upon encountering aggression.
(c) Restrain the patient: Attempting to restrain a violent patient single-handedly is dangerous and generally contraindicated. Physical restraint should only be implemented by a trained team with sufficient numbers to ensure safety for both the patient and staff, and only as a last resort when de-escalation has failed.
(d) Seclude the patient: Seclusion, like restraint, is a restrictive intervention used as a last resort when less restrictive measures are ineffective and the patient poses an ongoing danger to self or others. It requires a team approach and is not the initial action a nurse takes immediately upon encountering aggression.
AGGRESSION RESPONSE: "CALL" - Call for help, Assess situation, Limit danger, Leave if unsafe alone
8
Which of the following approaches is most effective for controlling alcohol abuse in Uganda?
a) Reviewing and implementation of policies
b) Intensifying health education talks
c) Hiking alcohol prices
d) Regulating drinking hours
(a) Reviewing and implementation of policies
While all listed approaches can contribute, a comprehensive strategy involving the reviewing and implementation of policies is generally considered the most effective framework. Effective policies can encompass and enforce many specific measures: taxation/pricing, availability regulation, marketing restrictions, drink-driving countermeasures, and support for treatment/prevention. A multi-pronged approach guided by strong, well-enforced national and local alcohol control policies has the broadest and most sustainable impact. The WHO Global Strategy to Reduce the Harmful Use of Alcohol emphasizes comprehensive policies.
(b) Intensifying health education talks: Health education is important for raising awareness, but on its own, it often has limited impact on changing widespread substance abuse behaviors without being part of a broader strategy that includes policy and environmental changes.
(c) Hiking alcohol prices: Increasing alcohol prices through taxation is recognized as one of the most effective individual measures (a "best buy" intervention according to WHO). However, this is usually implemented as part of a broader policy framework, not as a standalone approach.
(d) Regulating drinking hours: Restricting the hours during which alcohol can be sold is another specific policy measure that can help reduce alcohol-related harm. Again, this is a component that would fall under a comprehensive policy approach.
(c) Hiking alcohol prices: Increasing alcohol prices through taxation is recognized as one of the most effective individual measures (a "best buy" intervention according to WHO). However, this is usually implemented as part of a broader policy framework, not as a standalone approach.
(d) Regulating drinking hours: Restricting the hours during which alcohol can be sold is another specific policy measure that can help reduce alcohol-related harm. Again, this is a component that would fall under a comprehensive policy approach.
🌍 WHO BEST BUYS: 1) Increase alcohol prices, 2) Restrict availability, 3) Enforce drink-driving laws, 4) Ban alcohol advertising. All require strong policy implementation.
9
Which of the following orders facilitates quick removal of a mentally ill patient from the community to the hospital?
a) Temporary detention order
b) Order of commitment on detention
c) Urgency order
d) Warrant order
(c) Urgency order
In the context of mental health legislation in many jurisdictions, including Uganda's Mental Health Act, an Urgency Order is specifically designed for situations where a person is believed to be mentally ill and is behaving in a manner that indicates they are a danger to themselves or others, requiring immediate apprehension and removal to a hospital or mental health unit for assessment and treatment. This order allows for swift action when the delay in obtaining other types of orders could pose a significant risk. It's an emergency measure.
(a) Temporary detention order: While this also involves detention, an "Urgency Order" is typically the specific legal instrument for immediate, emergency removal. A temporary detention order might be part of the process following an urgency order, allowing for a short period of assessment.
(b) Order of commitment on detention: This sounds more like a formal, longer-term commitment order made by a court or tribunal after a period of assessment. It's not typically the order for quick initial removal from the community in an emergency.
(d) Warrant order: A warrant is a general legal document authorizing police to make an arrest or search. While a warrant might be used in some circumstances, an "Urgency Order" under mental health law is more specific for the immediate needs of a mentally ill person posing a danger.
(b) Order of commitment on detention: This sounds more like a formal, longer-term commitment order made by a court or tribunal after a period of assessment. It's not typically the order for quick initial removal from the community in an emergency.
(d) Warrant order: A warrant is a general legal document authorizing police to make an arrest or search. While a warrant might be used in some circumstances, an "Urgency Order" under mental health law is more specific for the immediate needs of a mentally ill person posing a danger.
⚡ URGENCY ORDER: Allows for immediate action without court delay. Must be followed by proper assessment and formal admission procedures within specified timeframes (e.g., 72 hours).
10
Which of the following types of hallucinations is characteristic of schizophrenia?
a) Single person
b) Gustatory
c) Third party
d) Tactile
(c) Third party
Auditory hallucinations are the most common type in schizophrenia. Among these, third-person hallucinations ("Third party") are particularly characteristic. This involves voices talking about the patient in the third person (e.g., "He is a bad person," "She is going to fail"). Other characteristic auditory hallucinations include voices commenting on the patient's actions (running commentary), thought echo (hearing one's own thoughts spoken aloud), and voices arguing or discussing the patient. These are considered Schneiderian first-rank symptoms, highly suggestive of schizophrenia.
(a) Single person: This is too vague. Auditory hallucinations can involve one voice or multiple voices. If it refers to hearing a familiar single person, that's possible in many conditions. The content and nature of the hallucination (like third-person commentary) are more characteristic than just the number of perceived speakers.
(b) Gustatory: These are hallucinations of taste. While they can occur in schizophrenia, they are less common than auditory hallucinations and can also be seen in medical or neurological disorders, not as specifically characteristic as certain types of auditory hallucinations.
(d) Tactile: These are hallucinations of touch (e.g., feeling insects crawling). Tactile hallucinations can occur in schizophrenia but are also commonly associated with substance withdrawal (e.g., alcohol or cocaine withdrawal), delirium, or neurological conditions. They are not as classic for schizophrenia as third-party auditory hallucinations.
(b) Gustatory: These are hallucinations of taste. While they can occur in schizophrenia, they are less common than auditory hallucinations and can also be seen in medical or neurological disorders, not as specifically characteristic as certain types of auditory hallucinations.
(d) Tactile: These are hallucinations of touch (e.g., feeling insects crawling). Tactile hallucinations can occur in schizophrenia but are also commonly associated with substance withdrawal (e.g., alcohol or cocaine withdrawal), delirium, or neurological conditions. They are not as classic for schizophrenia as third-party auditory hallucinations.
FIRST-RANK SYMPTOMS: "VAN" - Voices commenting, Audible thoughts, Thought broadcasting, Voices arguing, Thought insertion/withdrawal
11
Which of the following is NOT an anxiety disorder?
a) Generalised anxiety
b) Panic disorder
c) Agora phobia
d) Conversion state
(d) Conversion state
Conversion state (also known as Conversion Disorder or Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder in DSM-5) is classified as a Somatic Symptom and Related Disorder (or previously as a Somatoform Disorder). It is characterized by one or more symptoms of altered voluntary motor or sensory function that are incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions. While anxiety can be a significant co-occurring issue or a precipitating factor, the disorder itself is not primarily classified as an anxiety disorder. Its core feature is the unexplained neurological symptom(s).
(a) Generalised anxiety (Generalized Anxiety Disorder - GAD): GAD is a common anxiety disorder characterized by excessive, uncontrollable, and often irrational worry about everyday things, persisting for at least six months.
(b) Panic disorder: This is an anxiety disorder characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks – sudden periods of intense fear or discomfort that reach a peak within minutes.
(c) Agoraphobia: This is an anxiety disorder characterized by intense fear or anxiety about being in situations from which escape might be difficult or help might not be available, such as public transportation, open spaces, or crowds.
(b) Panic disorder: This is an anxiety disorder characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks – sudden periods of intense fear or discomfort that reach a peak within minutes.
(c) Agoraphobia: This is an anxiety disorder characterized by intense fear or anxiety about being in situations from which escape might be difficult or help might not be available, such as public transportation, open spaces, or crowds.
🧠 CONVERSION DISORDER: "La belle indifference" (lack of concern about symptoms) is a classic but not universal feature. Symptoms are real to the patient, not faked.
12
Which of the following conditions presents with survival guiltiness?
a) Generalised anxiety disorder
b) Post-traumatic stress disorder
c) Schizophrenia
d) Grandmal epilepsy
(b) Post-traumatic stress disorder
Survivor guilt (or survival guiltiness) is a common symptom experienced by individuals who have survived a traumatic event in which others died or suffered greatly. It involves persistent and distressing feelings of guilt about having survived when others did not, or about things they did or did not do during the event. This is a well-recognized feature associated with Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), which can develop after exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence.
(a) Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD): GAD is characterized by excessive and pervasive worry about various aspects of life, but survivor guilt is not a core diagnostic feature of GAD.
(c) Schizophrenia: Schizophrenia is characterized by psychosis (delusions, hallucinations), disorganized thought and speech, and negative symptoms. While individuals with schizophrenia may experience guilt related to their illness, "survivor guilt" as a specific phenomenon linked to surviving a traumatic event is not a characteristic feature of schizophrenia itself.
(d) Grandmal epilepsy (Tonic-clonic seizure): This is a type of seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and violent muscle contractions. While experiencing seizures can be traumatic, survivor guilt related to others not surviving is not a direct presentation of epilepsy.
(c) Schizophrenia: Schizophrenia is characterized by psychosis (delusions, hallucinations), disorganized thought and speech, and negative symptoms. While individuals with schizophrenia may experience guilt related to their illness, "survivor guilt" as a specific phenomenon linked to surviving a traumatic event is not a characteristic feature of schizophrenia itself.
(d) Grandmal epilepsy (Tonic-clonic seizure): This is a type of seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and violent muscle contractions. While experiencing seizures can be traumatic, survivor guilt related to others not surviving is not a direct presentation of epilepsy.
PTSD SYMPTOMS: "REAP" - Re-experiencing, Emotional numbing, Avoidance, Physiological hyperarousal
13
Which of the following is an anxiety disorder?
a) Depression
b) Mania
c) Bipolar
d) Phobia
(d) Phobia
A Phobia (or Specific Phobia) is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by an intense, persistent, and irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity (the phobic stimulus). Exposure to the phobic stimulus almost invariably provokes an immediate anxiety response, which may take the form of a panic attack. The fear is out of proportion to the actual danger posed, and the individual often recognizes this but cannot control their reaction, leading to avoidance of the feared stimulus.
(a) Depression (Major Depressive Disorder): This is primarily a mood disorder characterized by persistent sadness, loss of interest or pleasure (anhedonia), and other emotional and physical problems. While anxiety symptoms are common in depression (comorbid anxiety), depression itself is classified as a mood disorder, not an anxiety disorder.
(b) Mania: Mania is a state of abnormally elevated arousal, affect, and energy level, or "a state of heightened overall activation with enhanced affective expression together with lability of affect." It is a key feature of Bipolar I Disorder and is classified as a mood state, not an anxiety disorder.
(c) Bipolar (Bipolar Disorder): This is a mood disorder characterized by shifts in mood, energy, activity levels, and concentration, ranging from periods of intense excitement and energy (manic or hypomanic episodes) to periods of depression.
(b) Mania: Mania is a state of abnormally elevated arousal, affect, and energy level, or "a state of heightened overall activation with enhanced affective expression together with lability of affect." It is a key feature of Bipolar I Disorder and is classified as a mood state, not an anxiety disorder.
(c) Bipolar (Bipolar Disorder): This is a mood disorder characterized by shifts in mood, energy, activity levels, and concentration, ranging from periods of intense excitement and energy (manic or hypomanic episodes) to periods of depression.
📊 ANXIETY DISORDERS: GAD, Panic Disorder, Phobias, Agoraphobia, Social Anxiety, Separation Anxiety, Selective Mutism
14
Which of the following is NOT associated with suicide?
a) Mental retardation
b) Schizophrenia
c) Major depression
d) Substance abuse
(a) Mental retardation (Intellectual Disability)
While individuals with Mental Retardation (now more commonly termed Intellectual Disability - ID) can experience co-occurring mental health conditions like depression or anxiety, which are risk factors for suicide, ID itself is generally considered to have a lower direct association with suicide compared to severe mental illnesses like major depression, schizophrenia, or substance use disorders. Some studies suggest that suicide rates might be lower in individuals with ID, possibly due to factors like different cognitive understanding of death, closer supervision, or different stressor profiles. However, they are NOT immune to suicidal thoughts or behaviors.
(b) Schizophrenia: Schizophrenia is a severe mental illness that significantly increases the risk of suicide. Individuals with schizophrenia have a lifetime suicide risk estimated to be around 5-10%. Factors include command hallucinations, depression, hopelessness, substance abuse, and impact of illness on functioning.
(c) Major depression (Major Depressive Disorder - MDD): MDD is one of the most significant risk factors for suicide. A large percentage of individuals who die by suicide have a diagnosable mood disorder at the time of their death. Symptoms like hopelessness, worthlessness, anhedonia, and suicidal ideation are core features.
(d) Substance abuse (Substance Use Disorders - SUDs): SUDs are strongly associated with increased risk of suicidal ideation, attempts, and completion. Substance use can lower inhibitions, impair judgment, increase impulsivity, worsen underlying mental health conditions, and lead to social/occupational problems that contribute to hopelessness.
(c) Major depression (Major Depressive Disorder - MDD): MDD is one of the most significant risk factors for suicide. A large percentage of individuals who die by suicide have a diagnosable mood disorder at the time of their death. Symptoms like hopelessness, worthlessness, anhedonia, and suicidal ideation are core features.
(d) Substance abuse (Substance Use Disorders - SUDs): SUDs are strongly associated with increased risk of suicidal ideation, attempts, and completion. Substance use can lower inhibitions, impair judgment, increase impulsivity, worsen underlying mental health conditions, and lead to social/occupational problems that contribute to hopelessness.
HIGH-RISK CONDITIONS: "SMD" - Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, Drug/Alcohol abuse
15
Which of the following is the drug of choice for status epilepticus?
a) Diazepam injection
b) Chlor-diazepovide
c) Phenytoin
d) Carbamazepine
(a) Diazepam injection
For the immediate management of status epilepticus (a neurological emergency defined as a continuous seizure lasting more than 5 minutes, or two or more seizures without full recovery of consciousness in between), intravenous (IV) or rectal benzodiazepines are the first-line drugs of choice due to their rapid onset of action. Diazepam injection (IV or rectal gel) is a commonly used benzodiazepine for this purpose. Lorazepam (IV) is another preferred benzodiazepine, often considered superior due to a longer duration of action, but diazepam is widely available and effective. Midazolam (intramuscular, intranasal, or buccal) is also an option, especially in pre-hospital settings.
(b) Chlor-diazepovide (Chlordiazepoxide): This is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and alcohol withdrawal symptoms. It has a slower onset of action compared to diazepam or lorazepam and is not typically used for the acute treatment of status epilepticus.
(c) Phenytoin: Phenytoin is an anti-epileptic drug often used as a second-line agent if seizures do not stop after initial benzodiazepine administration. It has a slower onset and requires careful administration (slow IV infusion to avoid cardiac side effects), making it unsuitable as the initial drug of choice.
(d) Carbamazepine: Carbamazepine is an anti-epileptic drug used for long-term management of certain seizure types (focal seizures) and also for bipolar disorder. It is an oral medication and is not used for the acute emergency treatment of status epilepticus.
(c) Phenytoin: Phenytoin is an anti-epileptic drug often used as a second-line agent if seizures do not stop after initial benzodiazepine administration. It has a slower onset and requires careful administration (slow IV infusion to avoid cardiac side effects), making it unsuitable as the initial drug of choice.
(d) Carbamazepine: Carbamazepine is an anti-epileptic drug used for long-term management of certain seizure types (focal seizures) and also for bipolar disorder. It is an oral medication and is not used for the acute emergency treatment of status epilepticus.
⚡ STATUS EPILEPTICUS PROTOCOL: "D-50" - Diazepam (or Lorazepam) → 50% Dextrose (if hypoglycemia) → Phenytoin (or Fosphenytoin) → Phenobarbital → Midazolam infusion → General anesthesia
16
Which of the following is the commonest side effect of oral combined contraceptive pills?
a) Breakthrough bleeding
b) Cervicitis
c) Fibrocystic disease
d) Ovarian cyst
(a) Breakthrough bleeding
Breakthrough bleeding (BTB) or intermenstrual spotting (bleeding or spotting between expected periods) is one of the most common side effects experienced by women when starting or using combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs), especially with low-dose formulations or during the first few cycles of use. This occurs as the endometrium (uterine lining) adjusts to the new hormonal levels. It usually subsides over time (within the first 3 months for many women).
(b) Cervicitis: Cervicitis is inflammation of the cervix, more commonly caused by infections (like STIs) rather than being a direct side effect of COCs. COCs might even offer some protection against pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
(c) Fibrocystic disease (Fibrocystic breast changes): Combined oral contraceptives have actually been shown to decrease the incidence and symptoms of benign fibrocystic breast changes, not cause them.
(d) Ovarian cyst: COCs work by suppressing ovulation. By preventing ovulation, they can actually reduce the risk of developing functional ovarian cysts (like follicular cysts or corpus luteum cysts), which form as part of the normal ovulatory cycle.
(c) Fibrocystic disease (Fibrocystic breast changes): Combined oral contraceptives have actually been shown to decrease the incidence and symptoms of benign fibrocystic breast changes, not cause them.
(d) Ovarian cyst: COCs work by suppressing ovulation. By preventing ovulation, they can actually reduce the risk of developing functional ovarian cysts (like follicular cysts or corpus luteum cysts), which form as part of the normal ovulatory cycle.
COC SIDE EFFECTS: "BANANA" - Breakthrough bleeding, Amenorrhea, Nausea, Acne, Mood changes, Weight gain
17
Which of the following is the mode of action of diazepam in patients with persistent tonic clonic convulsions?
a) Slows down cardiac contractions
b) Relaxes peripheral muscles
c) Dilates the bronchial structures
d) Provides amnesia for the convulsive episode
(b) Relaxes peripheral muscles
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that primarily exerts its anticonvulsant effect by enhancing the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. By potentiating GABA's effects, diazepam increases neuronal inhibition, which helps to suppress excessive neuronal firing and terminate seizure activity. This central nervous system depression leads to several effects, including muscle relaxation. In tonic-clonic convulsions, the relaxation of peripheral muscles is a direct and observable effect that addresses the tonic (muscle stiffening) and clonic (rhythmic jerking) phases.
(a) Slows down cardiac contractions: While high doses or rapid IV administration of diazepam can cause cardiovascular side effects like hypotension or bradycardia, slowing cardiac contractions is not its primary mode of action or therapeutic goal for treating convulsions.
(c) Dilates the bronchial structures: Diazepam is not a bronchodilator. Drugs that dilate bronchial structures are typically used for respiratory conditions like asthma. Benzodiazepines can, in fact, cause respiratory depression as a side effect.
(d) Provides amnesia for the convulsive episode: While diazepam is known to cause anterograde amnesia, this is a side effect, not its primary mode of action for stopping the convulsion itself. The question asks for the mode of action, which refers to how it therapeutically stops the seizure.
(c) Dilates the bronchial structures: Diazepam is not a bronchodilator. Drugs that dilate bronchial structures are typically used for respiratory conditions like asthma. Benzodiazepines can, in fact, cause respiratory depression as a side effect.
(d) Provides amnesia for the convulsive episode: While diazepam is known to cause anterograde amnesia, this is a side effect, not its primary mode of action for stopping the convulsion itself. The question asks for the mode of action, which refers to how it therapeutically stops the seizure.
🔬 GABA MECHANISM: Benzodiazepines bind to GABA-A receptors, increasing chloride influx, causing neuronal hyperpolarization and inhibition. This stops seizure spread.
18
Which of the following drug combinations is used for pain management in advanced cancer of the cervix?
a) Furosemide and oral pethidine
b) Paracetamol and oral diclofenac
c) Bisacodyl and oral morphine
d) IM pethidine and oral morphine
(d) IM pethidine and oral morphine
Advanced cancer pain is often severe and requires strong opioids. Option (d) lists two strong opioids. Pethidine is a strong opioid, often used for acute, short-term pain. Morphine is the gold standard strong opioid for chronic cancer pain, typically administered orally for sustained relief. While using two strong opioids concurrently needs careful management, it is a combination of drugs used for severe pain. Intramuscular (IM) pethidine might be used for breakthrough pain or if oral routes are compromised, while oral morphine provides baseline analgesia.
(a) Furosemide and oral pethidine: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid overload; it has no analgesic properties. Pethidine is an analgesic. This combination doesn't make sense for pain management itself.
(b) Paracetamol and oral diclofenac: This combination can be used for mild to moderate pain, or as an adjunct to opioids. However, for advanced cancer pain, which is often severe, this combination alone might not be sufficient and strong opioids are usually required.
(c) Bisacodyl and oral morphine: Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative used to treat constipation - a common side effect of opioids. While bisacodyl would be appropriately prescribed alongside morphine to manage this side effect, bisacodyl itself is not for pain management.
(b) Paracetamol and oral diclofenac: This combination can be used for mild to moderate pain, or as an adjunct to opioids. However, for advanced cancer pain, which is often severe, this combination alone might not be sufficient and strong opioids are usually required.
(c) Bisacodyl and oral morphine: Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative used to treat constipation - a common side effect of opioids. While bisacodyl would be appropriately prescribed alongside morphine to manage this side effect, bisacodyl itself is not for pain management.
💊 WHO ANALGESIC LADDER: Step 1: Non-opioids → Step 2: Weak opioids → Step 3: Strong opioids ± adjuvants. Advanced cancer requires Step 3.
19
Which of the following drugs is used to inhibit lactation?
a) Salbutamol
b) Furosemide
c) Bromocriptine
d) Aspirin
(c) Bromocriptine
Bromocriptine is a dopamine D2 receptor agonist. Prolactin, the hormone primarily responsible for milk production (lactation), is under inhibitory control by dopamine released from the hypothalamus. By stimulating dopamine receptors in the pituitary gland, bromocriptine mimics the action of dopamine and thereby inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary. Reduced prolactin levels lead to the suppression or inhibition of lactation.
(a) Salbutamol: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic receptor agonist used as a bronchodilator to treat asthma and COPD. It has no role in inhibiting lactation.
(b) Furosemide: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic used to treat edema and hypertension. It acts on the kidneys to increase urine output and has no direct effect on inhibiting lactation.
(d) Aspirin: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with analgesic, antipyretic, and antiplatelet properties. It is used for pain relief and to prevent blood clots. It does not inhibit lactation.
(b) Furosemide: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic used to treat edema and hypertension. It acts on the kidneys to increase urine output and has no direct effect on inhibiting lactation.
(d) Aspirin: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with analgesic, antipyretic, and antiplatelet properties. It is used for pain relief and to prevent blood clots. It does not inhibit lactation.
LACTATION SUPPRESSION: "BROMO" - Bromocriptine, cabergoline (both dopamine agonists that inhibit prolactin)
20
Which of the following is the most commonly abused drug in Uganda?
a) Nicotine
b) Cannabis
c) Cocaine
d) Alcohol
(d) Alcohol
Globally, and specifically in many parts of Africa including Uganda, alcohol is the most widely used and abused psychoactive substance. Its legal status, cultural acceptance in many contexts, widespread availability (including locally brewed forms), and relatively low cost contribute to its high prevalence of use and abuse. Alcohol abuse leads to significant health problems (liver disease, cardiovascular issues, mental health disorders), social problems (violence, family disruption), and economic burdens. Numerous reports and surveys from Uganda consistently highlight alcohol as the most commonly abused substance.
(a) Nicotine (primarily from tobacco): Nicotine is highly addictive, and tobacco use is a major public health concern. While nicotine dependence is very common, alcohol consumption and its associated harms often surpass it in terms of overall prevalence of "abuse" when considering impairment and broader societal impact.
(b) Cannabis (Marijuana): Cannabis is the most commonly used illicit drug in many parts of the world, including Uganda. Its use is significant, but generally, the overall prevalence of alcohol abuse tends to be higher than that of cannabis abuse when population-level data is considered.
(c) Cocaine: Cocaine is a powerful stimulant drug. While its use occurs in Uganda, particularly in certain urban populations, it is generally far less common and less widely abused compared to alcohol or even cannabis, partly due to its higher cost and more limited availability.
(b) Cannabis (Marijuana): Cannabis is the most commonly used illicit drug in many parts of the world, including Uganda. Its use is significant, but generally, the overall prevalence of alcohol abuse tends to be higher than that of cannabis abuse when population-level data is considered.
(c) Cocaine: Cocaine is a powerful stimulant drug. While its use occurs in Uganda, particularly in certain urban populations, it is generally far less common and less widely abused compared to alcohol or even cannabis, partly due to its higher cost and more limited availability.
🌍 WHO DATA: Alcohol causes 3 million deaths annually worldwide. In Uganda, alcohol-related harm is a leading public health concern.
SECTION B: Fill in the Blank Spaces (10 marks)
21
A pathological and excessive, insatiable appetite is referred to as __________
Polyphagia (or hyperphagia)
Polyphagia (also known as hyperphagia) is the medical term for excessive or extreme hunger, leading to an abnormally increased appetite and consumption of food. It can be a symptom of various medical conditions, including uncontrolled diabetes mellitus (where cells cannot utilize glucose properly, leading to a sense of starvation despite high blood sugar), hyperthyroidism (which increases metabolism), certain medications (like corticosteroids), or psychological conditions like bulimia nervosa or Prader-Willi syndrome.
22
A sensation perceived by a patient that precedes an epileptic attack is known as __________
Aura
An aura is a perceptual disturbance experienced by some individuals with epilepsy or migraine. In the context of epilepsy, an aura is actually a focal (partial) seizure that occurs before the more obvious motor manifestations of a seizure (like a tonic-clonic seizure) or before a loss of consciousness. The patient is aware during the aura. Symptoms can include sensory changes (strange smells, visual disturbances), psychic symptoms (déjà vu, fear), or autonomic symptoms (epigastric rising sensation, palpitations).
23
A patient who sleeps during the day and remains awake throughout the night is said to be experiencing __________
Sleep Inversion / Inverted Sleep
This describes a significant disruption of the normal sleep-wake pattern, often referred to as a reversed sleep-wake cycle or sleep inversion. More formally, it could be a symptom of a circadian rhythm sleep disorder. Depending on the specific pattern and cause, it might relate to Delayed Sleep-Wake Phase Disorder (difficulty falling asleep and waking at desired conventional times) or Irregular Sleep-Wake Rhythm Disorder (lack of a clear circadian rhythm, with sleep fragmented into multiple naps throughout the 24-hour period).
24
The type of schizophrenia characterised by disturbance of motor behaviour is known as __________
Catatonic schizophrenia (or Schizophrenia with catatonia)
Catatonic schizophrenia (or more currently, schizophrenia with the specifier "with catatonia" as per DSM-5) is a subtype or presentation of schizophrenia characterized by marked disturbances in motor behavior. These can range from extreme unresponsiveness (e.g., stupor, catalepsy – waxy flexibility, mutism, negativism) to excessive and purposeless motor activity (catatonic excitement), or peculiar voluntary movements (e.g., posturing, stereotypies, mannerisms, grimacing). Echolalia and echopraxia can also occur.
25
The act of getting up and walking around while asleep is referred to as __________
Somnambulism (or sleepwalking)
Somnambulism, commonly known as sleepwalking, is a type of parasomnia (a disorder characterized by abnormal behaviors or physiological events occurring in association with sleep). It involves getting up from bed and walking around or performing other complex behaviors while still in a state of deep sleep (typically during non-REM Stage 3 sleep, also known as slow-wave sleep), with no conscious awareness or subsequent memory of the event.
26
The type of convulsions characterised by purposive body movements is called __________
Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES) (or pseudoseizures / non-epileptic attack disorder - NEAD)
Convulsions or seizure-like episodes characterized by purposive body movements (movements that appear goal-directed or deliberate, though the person is not consciously faking them) are often a feature of Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures (PNES). PNES are events that resemble epileptic seizures but are not caused by abnormal cortical electrical discharges. Instead, they are a physical manifestation of psychological distress or underlying psychiatric conditions. Features that might suggest PNES can include side-to-side head movements, pelvic thrusting, asynchronous limb movements, closed eyes with resistance to opening, crying or talking during the event, and fluctuating course.
27
The collective name given to all drugs used in destruction of cancer cells is __________
Chemotherapeutic agents (or antineoplastic drugs / cytotoxic drugs)
The collective name for drugs used to destroy cancer cells is most broadly chemotherapeutic agents or simply chemotherapy drugs. More specific terms include antineoplastic drugs (meaning "against new growth") or cytotoxic drugs (meaning "toxic to cells," specifically targeting rapidly dividing cells like cancer cells). These drugs work through various mechanisms to kill cancer cells or stop their growth and proliferation.
28
The name of the commonest narcotic used to suppress cough is __________
Codeine
Codeine is an opioid (narcotic) analgesic that also has significant antitussive (cough suppressant) properties. It acts centrally on the cough center in the medulla oblongata to suppress the cough reflex. It is commonly found in prescription cough syrups and tablets, often in combination with other ingredients, for the relief of dry, unproductive coughs. While other opioids also have antitussive effects, codeine is one of the most widely used for this specific purpose, particularly in lower doses than those used for pain relief.
29
Increased resistance to the usual normal dose of a particular drug is referred to as __________
Tolerance (or drug tolerance)
Tolerance (or drug tolerance) is a pharmacological concept describing a person's diminished response to a drug that occurs when the drug is used repeatedly and the body adapts to the continued presence of the drug. This means that over time, a higher dose of the drug is required to achieve the same effect that was previously obtained with a lower dose. This "increased resistance" to the usual normal dose is the hallmark of tolerance.
30
The recommended anti convulsant administered to mothers with eclampsia is called __________
Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4)
Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is the anticonvulsant drug of choice for the prevention and treatment of eclamptic seizures (convulsions) in pregnant women with severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. It is administered intravenously or intramuscularly. While the exact mechanism of its anticonvulsant action in eclampsia is not fully understood, it is thought to involve blockade of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors in the brain, reduction of neuronal excitability, and cerebral vasodilation, thereby raising the seizure threshold.
SECTION B: Short Essay Questions (10 marks)
31
Outline five (5) characteristic features of a self destructive individual. (5 marks)
Self-destructive individuals often exhibit a pattern of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that put them at risk of harm, whether physical, emotional, or social:
1. Low Self-Esteem and Feelings of Worthlessness: A pervasive sense of inadequacy, negative self-perception, and belief that one is not good enough, unlovable, or fundamentally flawed. They may struggle to see their own value or positive qualities. These deep-seated negative beliefs can fuel self-sabotaging behaviors.
2. Impulsivity and Poor Impulse Control: A tendency to act on sudden urges or desires without considering potential negative consequences. This can manifest as substance abuse, reckless behaviors (e.g., dangerous driving, unsafe sex), impulsive spending, or engaging in self-harm without much forethought. Poor impulse control means the individual may struggle to resist harmful urges that provide immediate (but fleeting) relief.
3. History of Trauma or Abuse: Many individuals with self-destructive tendencies have a background of significant trauma, such as childhood physical, emotional, or sexual abuse, neglect, or exposure to violence. Trauma can lead to profound emotional pain, feelings of shame, guilt, difficulty trusting others, and distorted self-perception. Self-destructive behaviors can emerge as maladaptive coping mechanisms.
4. Difficulty with Emotional Regulation and Intense Negative Emotions: Struggling to manage or tolerate intense and overwhelming negative emotions such as anger, sadness, anxiety, shame, or emptiness. They may experience rapid mood swings or feel chronically overwhelmed. Self-destructive acts can be attempts to temporarily escape, numb, or gain a sense of control over these painful emotional states.
5. Social Isolation and Relationship Difficulties: A tendency to withdraw from social connections, or a pattern of unstable, conflict-ridden, or unsatisfying interpersonal relationships. They may feel misunderstood, alienated, or fear rejection. Lack of a supportive social network can exacerbate feelings of loneliness and hopelessness, reducing protective factors. Self-destructive behaviors themselves can push others away, creating a vicious cycle.
6. Hopelessness and Pessimism about the Future: A pervasive belief that things will not get better, that their problems are insurmountable, and that there is no point in trying to change. Hopelessness is a strong predictor of suicidal ideation and self-destructive behavior.
SELF-DESTRUCTIVE FEATURES: "SHIELD" - Self-hatred, Hopelessness, Impulsivity, Emotional dysregulation, Lack of support, Depressive features
32
List two (2) indications, average adult dose and two side effects of misoprostol. (5 marks)
Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue with various medical uses:
Two (2) Indications for Misoprostol:
1. Prevention and Treatment of NSAID-Induced Gastric Ulcers: Misoprostol is used to prevent stomach ulcers in patients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) long-term, such as those with arthritis. It can also be used to treat existing NSAID-induced ulcers. NSAIDs can damage the stomach lining by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis; misoprostol replaces these protective prostaglandins, reducing acid secretion and enhancing mucosal defense.
2. Labor Induction / Cervical Ripening / Management of Postpartum Hemorrhage: In obstetrics, misoprostol is widely used for cervical ripening (to soften and dilate the cervix before labor induction), labor induction (to stimulate uterine contractions), and management of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) to cause uterine contractions and reduce bleeding after childbirth, especially when other uterotonics are not available or effective. It is also used for medical management of miscarriage.
Average Adult Dose (Example for one indication):
For Prevention of NSAID-Induced Gastric Ulcers: The typical adult dose is 200 micrograms (mcg) four times daily with food. If this dose is not tolerated, 100 mcg four times daily may be used. Note: Doses vary significantly depending on the indication. For labor induction or PPH, doses and routes (oral, vaginal, rectal, sublingual) are different and carefully managed by healthcare professionals.
Two (2) Side Effects of Misoprostol:
1. Diarrhea: Diarrhea is a very common side effect, especially when misoprostol is used orally for gastric ulcer prevention. It is usually dose-related and may occur early in treatment, often resolving on its own within a few days. This occurs because misoprostol increases intestinal motility and fluid secretion due to its prostaglandin effects.
2. Abdominal Pain/Cramping: Abdominal pain or cramping is another frequent side effect, related to its effects on smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract and uterus. When used for obstetric indications, these uterine cramps are the desired effect for labor but can be a side effect if used for other purposes or if excessive.
⚠️ IMPORTANT CONTRAINDICATION: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy for the prevention of NSAID-induced ulcers because it can cause abortion, premature birth, or birth defects. If used for obstetric purposes, it must be under strict medical supervision.
SECTION C: Long Essay Questions (60 marks)
33
(a) Outline five (5) causes of aggression and violence among mentally ill patients. (5 marks)
(b) Outline five (5) nursing concerns for an aggressive and violent patient. (5 marks)
(c) Outline ten (10) measures of safely handling an aggressive and violent patient. (10 marks)
(b) Outline five (5) nursing concerns for an aggressive and violent patient. (5 marks)
(c) Outline ten (10) measures of safely handling an aggressive and violent patient. (10 marks)
(a) Causes of Aggression and Violence Among Mentally Ill Patients:
1. Psychotic Symptoms (Positive Symptoms): Symptoms such as persecutory delusions (false beliefs that one is being harmed, threatened, or plotted against) or command hallucinations (voices instructing the person to harm themselves or others) can directly lead to aggressive or violent behavior. If a patient genuinely believes they are in imminent danger, they might act aggressively in perceived self-defense.
2. Impulse Control Difficulties and Disinhibition: Some mental illnesses or states (e.g., mania in bipolar disorder, certain personality disorders like antisocial or borderline personality disorder, substance intoxication, organic brain syndromes like dementia or delirium) can impair a person's ability to control their impulses or inhibit aggressive urges. Damage or dysfunction in brain areas responsible for executive functions can lead to an inability to regulate emotions and behaviors.
3. Substance Abuse and Intoxication/Withdrawal: Co-occurring substance abuse (e.g., alcohol, stimulants like cocaine or amphetamines, PCP) is a major risk factor for aggression and violence. Intoxication can lower inhibitions, impair judgment, and induce paranoia or agitation. Withdrawal from certain substances can also cause irritability and aggression.
4. Frustration, Fear, or Feeling Threatened in the Environment: Patients may become aggressive if they feel their needs are not being met, if they feel disrespected, frightened, trapped, or provoked by staff actions, environmental factors (e.g., overcrowding, excessive noise), or by other patients. Aggression can be a response to a perceived threat or a feeling of powerlessness.
5. Underlying Medical Conditions or Neurological Factors: Some medical conditions can present with or exacerbate psychiatric symptoms including aggression. Examples include delirium (e.g., due to infection or metabolic imbalance), dementia, traumatic brain injury, brain tumors, epilepsy (especially temporal lobe epilepsy), or adverse effects of certain medications. These conditions can directly affect brain function, leading to confusion, agitation, irritability, paranoia, or disinhibition.
6. History of Violence or Trauma: A past history of violent behavior is one of the strongest predictors of future violence. Similarly, individuals who have experienced significant trauma may have learned aggressive coping mechanisms or may react aggressively when feeling triggered or re-traumatized.
(b) Nursing Concerns for an Aggressive and Violent Patient:
1. Safety of Self and Other Staff Members: The absolute immediate priority is the physical safety of the nurse managing the patient and any other staff members present. An aggressive patient can inflict serious physical harm. Ensuring there is enough trained staff and having an escape route are crucial before attempting any intervention.
2. Safety of the Aggressive Patient: While protecting themselves and others, nurses are also concerned about the safety of the aggressive patient. The patient may harm themselves unintentionally during an outburst or may be harmed if interventions (like restraint) are not applied correctly and safely. The goal is to de-escalate and manage aggression in the least restrictive manner possible.
3. Safety of Other Patients and Visitors in the Vicinity: Aggressive outbursts can be frightening and potentially dangerous to other vulnerable patients or visitors in the ward. Nurses have a responsibility to maintain a safe and therapeutic environment for all, which may involve moving other patients away from the immediate area.
4. De-escalation of the Aggressive Behavior: A primary nursing goal is to verbally and non-verbally de-escalate the patient's aggression and agitation to prevent further escalation and the need for more restrictive measures like physical restraint or seclusion. De-escalation techniques are the preferred initial approach.
5. Identifying and Addressing the Underlying Cause or Trigger of Aggression: While managing the immediate behavior, nurses are concerned about understanding why the patient is aggressive. Is it due to psychotic symptoms, frustration, fear, pain, substance intoxication, a medical condition, or an environmental trigger? Identifying the underlying cause is crucial for developing an effective management plan and preventing future episodes.
(c) Measures of Safely Handling an Aggressive and Violent Patient:
1. Maintain Self-Awareness and Emotional Control: Nurses should be aware of their own feelings and practice remaining calm, professional, and non-judgmental. Control voice tone, volume, and body language to convey calmness and confidence, not fear or anger. The patient can often sense fear or anger in staff, which can escalate the situation.
2. Ensure Personal Safety and Team Approach (Call for Help): Never attempt to manage a physically aggressive patient alone. Always call for assistance from other staff members. Ensure an escape route is available and maintain a safe distance. A team approach ensures sufficient manpower for safe intervention.
3. Use Non-Threatening Body Language and Posture: Stand at an angle (not directly face-to-face), keep hands visible and open, maintain intermittent eye contact (not staring), and respect the patient's personal space. Avoid sudden movements. Non-verbal communication is powerful and can help reduce the patient's perception of threat.
4. Employ Verbal De-escalation Techniques: Speak calmly, clearly, slowly, and simply. Use a respectful and empathetic tone. Listen actively to the patient's concerns. Validate their feelings (e.g., "I can see you're very angry"). Avoid arguing, challenging, or making threats. Offer clear, concise, and reasonable choices if possible.
5. Set Clear, Consistent, and Enforceable Limits: Calmly and firmly state that aggressive behavior is not acceptable and outline consequences if it continues (e.g., "I need you to stop shouting, or we will have to end this conversation"). Be clear about what behavior needs to stop. Setting limits provides structure and helps the patient understand expectations.
6. Remove Potential Weapons or Dangerous Objects from the Environment: If possible and safe to do so, discreetly remove any objects in the immediate vicinity that could be used as weapons (e.g., sharp objects, heavy items). Environmental safety is crucial in preventing injury.
7. Offer PRN Medication (If Prescribed and Appropriate): If verbal de-escalation is not effective and the patient's agitation is severe, and if PRN medication for agitation is prescribed, offer it to the patient. Explain its purpose (to help them feel calmer). Pharmacological intervention can help reduce acute agitation and aggression.
8. Use Restraint or Seclusion Only as a Last Resort and According to Policy: If de-escalation fails and the patient poses an imminent danger, physical restraint or seclusion may be necessary. These must be implemented by a sufficient number of trained staff using approved techniques, applied for the shortest duration possible, with continuous monitoring, and properly documented.
9. Identify and Address Underlying Causes or Triggers: Once the immediate crisis is managed, try to understand and document the antecedents (what happened before the aggression), the behavior itself, and the consequences. Explore potential triggers (e.g., pain, fear, frustration, specific interactions, environmental factors, psychotic symptoms).
10. Post-Incident Debriefing and Review: After an aggressive incident, conduct a debriefing session with staff to review the event, identify what went well and what could be improved, and provide emotional support. Also, when the patient is calm, discuss the incident with them to help them understand the impact and explore alternative coping strategies.
SAFETY PROTOCOL: "CALM-DOWN" - Call for help, Assess, Leave escape route, Maintain composure, De-escalate, Options offered, Watch environment, Notify team, Document
🛡️ LEAST RESTRICTIVE PRINCIPLE: Always start with the least restrictive interventions (verbal de-escalation) and move to more restrictive measures only as necessary for safety.
34
(a) Outline five (5) clinical manifestations of Post-traumatic Stress Disorders (PTSD). (5 marks)
(b) Outline ten (10) educational points nurses share with patients struggling with post-traumatic stress disorders. (10 marks)
(c) Outline five (5) nurses goals for managing a patient struggling with PTSD. (5 marks)
(b) Outline ten (10) educational points nurses share with patients struggling with post-traumatic stress disorders. (10 marks)
(c) Outline five (5) nurses goals for managing a patient struggling with PTSD. (5 marks)
(a) Clinical Manifestations of PTSD:
1. Intrusion Symptoms (Re-experiencing the Trauma): The traumatic event is persistently re-experienced through recurrent, involuntary, and intrusive distressing memories; recurrent distressing dreams (nightmares); dissociative reactions (flashbacks) where the individual feels or acts as if the traumatic event were recurring; intense psychological distress at exposure to internal or external cues that symbolize the traumatic event; and marked physiological reactions to such cues.
2. Persistent Avoidance of Stimuli Associated with the Trauma: The individual makes persistent efforts to avoid distressing memories, thoughts, or feelings about the traumatic event, AND/OR makes efforts to avoid external reminders (people, places, conversations, activities, objects, situations) that arouse distressing memories, thoughts, or feelings about the traumatic event.
3. Negative Alterations in Cognitions and Mood: Negative changes in thoughts and mood that began or worsened after the traumatic event, including inability to remember an important aspect of the traumatic event; persistent and exaggerated negative beliefs or expectations about oneself, others, or the world; persistent, distorted cognitions about the cause or consequences of the traumatic event that lead the individual to blame themselves; persistent negative emotional state (e.g., fear, horror, anger, guilt); markedly diminished interest or participation in significant activities; feelings of detachment or estrangement from others; and persistent inability to experience positive emotions.
4. Marked Alterations in Arousal and Reactivity: Significant changes in arousal and reactivity associated with the traumatic event, beginning or worsening after the event, manifested as irritable behavior and angry outbursts (with little or no provocation); reckless or self-destructive behavior; hypervigilance; exaggerated startle response; problems with concentration; and sleep disturbance.
5. Significant Distress or Impairment in Functioning: The disturbance causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The symptoms must last for more than 1 month to meet diagnostic criteria for PTSD.
(b) Educational Points for PTSD Patients:
1. Understanding PTSD as a Normal Reaction to an Abnormal Event: Explain that PTSD is a recognized mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a terrifying event. Emphasize that their symptoms are understandable reactions to an extremely abnormal situation, not a sign of personal weakness or "craziness." Normalizing reactions can reduce self-blame and stigma.
2. Common Symptoms of PTSD: Briefly explain the main symptom clusters of PTSD (re-experiencing, avoidance, negative changes in thoughts/mood, hyperarousal) using simple language. Help them identify which symptoms they are experiencing. Understanding that diverse experiences fit into a known pattern can be validating.
3. The Importance of Professional Treatment and That Recovery is Possible: Stress that PTSD is treatable and that help is available. Explain that evidence-based treatments, such as specific types of psychotherapy (e.g., Trauma-Focused Cognitive Behavioral Therapy, EMDR) and sometimes medications, can significantly reduce symptoms and improve quality of life. This instills hope and motivates engagement in treatment.
4. Identifying Triggers and Developing Coping Strategies: Help the patient understand what triggers are and discuss the importance of identifying personal triggers and developing healthy coping strategies to manage reactions when triggered (e.g., grounding techniques, deep breathing, distraction, mindfulness). Awareness allows for proactive management.
5. The Role of Avoidance and How It Maintains PTSD: Explain that while avoiding reminders might feel helpful short-term, it can maintain PTSD symptoms long-term by preventing emotional processing and reinforcing fear. Gently discuss how therapy can help gradually confront and process traumatic memories safely.
6. Self-Care Strategies for Managing Symptoms: Emphasize the importance of self-care, including maintaining a regular sleep schedule, eating nutritious meals, engaging in regular physical exercise, avoiding excessive caffeine or alcohol, and engaging in relaxing activities. Healthy lifestyle choices can improve overall well-being and resilience.
7. The Importance of Social Support: Encourage the patient to connect with trusted friends, family members, or support groups. Explain that social support can reduce feelings of isolation and provide understanding and encouragement. Feeling connected is a significant protective factor.
8. Managing Sleep Disturbances: Provide information on sleep hygiene techniques (e.g., regular sleep schedule, creating restful environment, avoiding stimulants before bed, relaxation techniques) to help manage common PTSD-related sleep problems like insomnia or nightmares. Improving sleep positively impacts other symptoms.
9. Dealing with Anger and Irritability: Acknowledge that anger and irritability are common in PTSD. Discuss healthy ways to manage anger, such as relaxation techniques, assertiveness skills (rather than aggression), physical activity, or talking about feelings. Uncontrolled anger can damage relationships.
10. Safety Planning (If Suicidal Ideation or Self-Harm is Present): If relevant, discuss the importance of developing a safety plan, which includes identifying warning signs, coping strategies, sources of support, and emergency contacts if they feel overwhelmed or have thoughts of harming themselves.
(c) Nurses Goals for Managing PTSD:
1. Ensure Patient Safety and Reduce Risk of Harm: The patient will remain safe and will not harm themselves or others. This includes assessing for and managing suicidal ideation, self-harm urges, or aggressive impulses. Safety is the paramount concern.
2. Reduce the Frequency and Intensity of PTSD Symptoms: The patient will experience a reduction in core PTSD symptoms, including intrusive memories/flashbacks, avoidance behaviors, negative alterations in mood/cognition, and hyperarousal symptoms. The primary aim is to alleviate distressing symptoms that impair quality of life and daily functioning.
3. Improve Coping Skills and Emotional Regulation: The patient will learn and utilize effective, healthy coping strategies to manage anxiety, distress, anger, and other difficult emotions associated with the trauma, and to respond to triggers in a more adaptive way. This helps reduce reliance on maladaptive coping.
4. Enhance Social Support and Interpersonal Functioning: The patient will improve their ability to connect with others, reduce feelings of detachment or isolation, and re-engage in meaningful social relationships and activities. Social support is a crucial protective factor and aids in recovery.
5. Promote Engagement in and Adherence to Recommended Treatment: The patient will actively participate in their prescribed treatment plan, including attending therapy sessions and adhering to medication regimens, and will understand the rationale for these treatments. Engagement is key to recovery.
6. Improve Overall Daily Functioning and Quality of Life: The patient will experience an improvement in their ability to function in important life areas, such as work or school, family life, and self-care, leading to an enhanced overall quality of life. This is the ultimate aim beyond just symptom reduction.
PTSD MANAGEMENT GOALS: "SAFETY" - Support, Assessment, Functioning improvement, Education, Treatment adherence, Empower patient, Your quality of life matters
35
(a) Explain five (5) principles of prescribing drugs in pregnancy. (10 marks)
(b) Outline five (5) measures of improving compliance on prophylactic medicines administered in pregnancy. (5 marks)
(c) Outline five (5) challenges nurses face in prescription and administration of medicines to pregnant women. (5 marks)
(b) Outline five (5) measures of improving compliance on prophylactic medicines administered in pregnancy. (5 marks)
(c) Outline five (5) challenges nurses face in prescription and administration of medicines to pregnant women. (5 marks)
(a) Principles of Prescribing Drugs in Pregnancy:
1. Benefit-Risk Assessment (Mother and Fetus): The primary principle is to weigh the potential benefits of drug therapy for the mother against the potential risks to the developing fetus (and sometimes the neonate). Medication should only be prescribed if the anticipated benefits to the mother's health clearly outweigh the potential risks. Many medical conditions in pregnancy require treatment to protect the mother's health, and untreated maternal illness can also pose risks to the fetus.
2. Avoid Drugs Whenever Possible, Especially in the First Trimester: Non-pharmacological treatments should be considered first and preferred whenever effective. If a drug is necessary, it should be avoided if possible, particularly during the first trimester (the period of organogenesis, approximately weeks 3 to 8 post-conception), when the fetus is most vulnerable to teratogenic effects. The first trimester is when major organ systems are forming, making the embryo highly susceptible to drug-induced birth defects.
3. Use the Lowest Effective Dose for the Shortest Possible Duration: If drug therapy is deemed essential, the lowest dose that effectively controls the maternal condition should be used. The duration of therapy should also be limited to the shortest period necessary. The risk of adverse fetal effects is often dose-dependent and related to the duration of exposure. Using the minimum effective dose for the minimum necessary time helps reduce potential fetal exposure.
4. Choose Drugs with Established Safety Records in Pregnancy (Evidence-Based Prescribing): Whenever possible, select drugs that have a well-documented history of use in pregnancy and for which there is reasonable evidence of safety for the fetus. Refer to reliable resources, pregnancy drug registries, and evidence-based guidelines (e.g., FDA pregnancy categories or newer PLLR labeling). Avoid new drugs for which safety data are limited, unless there are no safer alternatives for a serious condition.
5. Individualize Therapy and Consider Physiological Changes of Pregnancy: Prescribing decisions must be tailored to the individual patient, considering her specific medical condition, severity, gestational age, overall health status, and any co-morbidities. It's crucial to recognize that pregnancy induces significant physiological changes that can affect drug pharmacokinetics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion). What is appropriate for one pregnant patient may not be for another.
6. Provide Clear Patient Counseling and Ensure Informed Consent/Shared Decision-Making: The pregnant woman must be fully informed about the reasons for prescribing a medication, the potential benefits, the known or suspected risks, and any available alternative treatments (including the risks of not treating). Decisions should be made collaboratively, respecting the patient's autonomy.
7. Monitor Mother and Fetus Closely: When drugs are used during pregnancy, both the mother and the fetus should be monitored appropriately for therapeutic effects, adverse drug reactions, and any signs of fetal compromise. This may involve more frequent antenatal visits, specific maternal lab tests, or fetal surveillance (e.g., ultrasound, fetal heart rate monitoring).
(b) Measures to Improve Compliance on Prophylactic Medicines in Pregnancy:
1. Comprehensive Patient Education and Counseling: Provide clear, simple, and culturally appropriate information about the prophylactic medicine: Explain why the medicine is needed (e.g., to prevent iron-deficiency anemia, neural tube defects, malaria). Clearly explain dosage and schedule. Discuss common, mild side effects and how to manage them. Explore and address any fears, myths, or misinformation.
2. Simplify the Regimen and Provide Reminders/Aids: Whenever possible, simplify the medication regimen (e.g., once-daily dosing). Suggest practical reminder strategies such as linking medication intake to a daily routine, using a pillbox organizer, setting phone alarms, or encouraging a family member to help with reminders.
3. Establish a Strong Nurse-Patient Therapeutic Relationship: Build a trusting, respectful, and empathetic relationship with the pregnant woman. Create an environment where she feels comfortable asking questions, expressing concerns, or admitting difficulties with adherence without fear of judgment. A positive therapeutic relationship fosters open communication and motivates adherence.
4. Involve Family/Partner Support and Address Social/Economic Barriers: With the woman's consent, involve her partner or a key family member in education and support. Assess for and try to address potential barriers such as cost of medication, transportation to get refills, or lack of social support. Family support can play a significant role in encouraging adherence.
5. Regular Follow-Up, Monitoring, and Positive Reinforcement: During antenatal visits, consistently and non-judgmentally inquire about medication adherence. Monitor for therapeutic effects and side effects. Provide positive reinforcement and encouragement for good adherence. If adherence is poor, explore reasons collaboratively and problem-solve. This demonstrates ongoing care and provides opportunities to address issues.
(c) Challenges Nurses Face in Prescription and Administration of Medicines to Pregnant Women:
1. Limited Safety Data and Fear of Teratogenicity: There is often a lack of robust clinical trial data on the safety of many drugs in pregnancy because pregnant women are typically excluded from trials. This leads to uncertainty and fear of causing teratogenic effects. Nurses must rely on animal studies, case reports, or pregnancy registries, which may not be entirely predictive.
2. Physiological Changes of Pregnancy Affecting Pharmacokinetics: Pregnancy induces significant physiological changes (increased plasma volume, increased renal clearance, altered liver metabolism) that can alter drug pharmacokinetics. These changes can make standard adult dosing inappropriate, potentially leading to sub-therapeutic levels or toxic levels.
3. Balancing Maternal Health Needs with Fetal Well-being (Benefit-Risk Dilemmas): Nurses face the ethical and clinical dilemma of ensuring the mother's health is adequately managed (as untreated maternal illness can harm the fetus) while minimizing drug-related risk to the baby. This requires careful assessment, strong clinical judgment, and excellent communication skills.
4. Patient Adherence Issues and Misconceptions: Pregnant women may be hesitant or refuse medications due to fear of harming their baby, misinformation, or unpleasant side effects. Morning sickness can also make taking oral medications difficult. Poor adherence to necessary medications can lead to poor maternal and fetal outcomes.
5. Communication and Information Gaps: There can be challenges in accessing up-to-date, reliable information on drug safety in pregnancy. Communication between different healthcare providers may not always be optimal, leading to potential gaps or inconsistencies in advice. Nurses need access to current evidence-based resources and must ensure consistent messaging.
6. Considerations Around Labor, Delivery, and Postpartum Period/Breastfeeding: Medications administered during pregnancy can have effects during labor and delivery or on the neonate (e.g., withdrawal symptoms, respiratory depression). Furthermore, choices of medication must consider safety during breastfeeding. Nurses must be knowledgeable about these peripartum and postpartum implications.
PREGNANCY MEDICATION CHALLENGES: "LIMITED" - Lack of data, Individual variations, Maternal-fetal balance, Information gaps, Teratogenicity fears, Education needs, Dose adjustments
🤰 KEY TAKEAWAY: Always weigh benefits vs risks, use lowest effective dose, choose drugs with established safety profiles, and ensure thorough patient education and monitoring.
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