Quizzes & Surveys - Page 10 of 14

Community Day 5 Quiz

Welcome to your Community Day 5 Quiz

October 4, 2025

Attempt All Questions

1. What is the primary goal of community assessment?

A. To develop new healthcare technologies

B. To identify and prioritize significant health problems

C. To train healthcare workers

D. To build new healthcare facilities

None

2. What is the first step in the process of community assessment?

A. Collect data from the community

B. Visit the community leaders

C. Knowledge about the community

D. Share ideas with colleagues

None

3. What does community diagnosis involve?

A. Building new healthcare facilities

B. Quantifying health problems and assessing their causes

C. Training community health workers

D. Implementing health education programs

None

4. How are Village Health Team (VHT) members selected?

a) Randomly

b) By the government

c) Through popular vote after community sensitization

d) By the community's healthcare provider

None

5. Which method of community mobilization is quick but can be expensive?

A. Mass media

B. Home visiting

C. Drumming, whistles, and horns

D. Posters

None

6. What is the primary purpose of Community Entry in community health activities?

a) To organize the community

b) To conduct a preliminary study

c) To get the community actively involved

d) To mobilize resources

None

7. Which principle of community participation ensures everyone has a chance to be involved?

A. Enabling Environment

B. Shifting Power

C. Bottom-up Approach

D. Democratic Process

None

8. The formal process of going into the community following normal steps is?

a) Community mapping

b) Community capacity building

c) Community entry

d) Community mobilization

None

9. What is passive participation in community mobilization?

A. Community members are given real decision-making power

B. Community members are motivated by material incentives

C. Community members are informed about decisions already made

D. Community members take independent initiatives

None

10. The first step by the health workers to consider when planning any communication to a community is?

a) Develop objectives

b) Select channel of communication

c) Identify the audience

d) Prepare the message

None

11. Which of the following factors promotes community mobilization?

a) Appropriate language

b) Past bad experiences

c) Improved community relationship

d) Political interest

None

12. What is the primary purpose of community mobilization?

A. To build new hospitals

B. To bring individuals and groups together for common goals

C. To provide healthcare services

D. To train healthcare workers

None

13. The following are responsibilities of a community nurse except:

(a) Giving health education talk

(b) Carrying out home visits

(d) Carrying out immunization outreaches

None

14. . The quickest and cheapest means of communication to a rural small community is:

(a) Use of a radio

(b) Reading newspapers

(d) Use of the drumming method

None

15. Which of the following should a nurse do in order to encourage community participation?

a). Invite people from civil organization

b) . Refer to doctors for prescription

c) . Encourage sponsorship to the programmers

d) . Listen when people narrate their problems

None

16. Which type of participation involves joint problem-solving between community members and external agencies?

A. Passive participation

B. Manipulative participation

C. Interactive participation

D. Functional participation

None

17. What is a key indicator of community participation?

A. Increased healthcare funding

B. Community members working together

C. Government intervention

D. Availability of advanced medical equipment

None

18. What is the primary focus of the bottom-up approach in community participation?

A. Providing healthcare services

B. Involving communities in decision-making

C. Training healthcare workers

D. Building healthcare infrastructure

None

19. What ensures that health education messages are easily understood and remembered?

A. Complicated language

B. Technical jargon

C. Simple and clear messages

D. Lengthy explanations

None

20. Why is it important to use culturally acceptable methods in community mobilization?

A. To impress international organizations

B. To ensure community acceptance and participation

C. To follow government regulations

D. To showcase modern technology

None

21. The research study which aims at obtaining information on specific topic within a population/ organization is, ..................................?

22. The processing of bringing people together with a desired purpose to plan, organize and participate in community activities is termed as, ......................................?

23. The category of drugs designed for certain levels of health facilities in the community to treat common health conditions are known as……………………………?

24. The process that involves identifying and recognizing the most significant and prevalent diseases, health problems, or needs within a specific area is called ................................?

25. Which year was the ALMA ATTA declaration signed?

Name

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Research and Teaching Methodology Certification Exam

Welcome to your Research and Teaching Methodology Certification Exam

No Full stops should be used in fill in

Use the Name that you want to appear on the Certificate

October 4, 2025

Attempt All Questions

1. What is the purpose of the "Declaration" in a research proposal's preliminary pages?

A. To list acronyms used in the research.

B. To outline the research objectives.

C. To declare the researcher's agreement with the supervisor.

D. To confirm the researcher's commitment to ethical conduct.

None

2. The main purpose of an abstract page in a research report is to:

(a) emphasize the title of the research problem.

(b) highlight the prevalence of the research problem.

(d) conclude the research problem.

None

3. Where should the researcher explain the potential benefits and contributions of the study in a research proposal?

A. Declaration section

B. List of Acronyms

C. Justification of the Study

D. Chapter Three

None

4. A technical guess of what the research would be by the researcher before data collection is termed as:

(a) hypothesis.

(b) justification.

(d) research questions.

None

5. The degree to which quantitative research results can be generalized to other settings is termed as:

(a) credibility.

(b) conformability.

(d) transferability.

None

6. What is the primary purpose of a literature review in research?

A. To showcase the researcher's knowledge.

B. To justify and support a study.

C. To list primary and secondary sources.

D. To present the research findings.

None

7. Which term refers to the area where the research will be conducted?

(a) Map.

(b) Geographical area.

(d) Study setting.

None

8. Which referencing style is commonly used in academic writing and research, and is known for its in-text citations and references page?

A. MLA style

B. Vancouver style

C. APA style

D. Turabian style

None

9. What is the main purpose of referencing and citing sources in research writing?

A. To show off your knowledge of different citation styles.

B. To avoid plagiarism and give credit to original authors.

C. To increase the word count of your research paper.

D. To make your research paper look more professional.

None

10. What is the primary purpose of a research design in a study?

A. To showcase the researcher's knowledge.

B. To list primary and secondary sources.

C. To specify the methods and procedures for data collection.

D. To present the research findings.

None

11. Which factor does NOT influence the choice of a research design?

A. Researcher's knowledge.

B. Resource availability.

C. Ethical considerations.

D. Gender of the researcher.

None

12. Which type of research design aims to analyze and understand relationships between variables using statistical methods?

A. Descriptive design

. B. Experimental design.

C. Analytical design.

D. Qualitative design.

None

13. Which term refers to the idea of interest that the researcher wants to study?

(a) Problem.

(b) Abstract.

(d) Hypothesis.

None

14. Which of the following should nurses use to collect data from an illiterate group of participants?

(a) Focus group discussion.

(b) Self-administered questionnaires.

(d) Key informant interview.

None

15. Which ethical principle underpins voluntary and informed consent?

(a) Beneficence.

(b) Autonomy.

(d) Respect.

None

16. The type of assessment performed at the end of the learning period is called:

(a) Formative assessment.

(b) Summative assessment.

(d) Continuous assessment.

None

17. Which research design involves a series of sample measurements taken over a period of time to study changes and trends over time?

A. Cross-sectional design.

B. Experimental design.

C. Longitudinal design.

D. Correlational design.

None

18. The accuracy with which a test measures what it is intended to measure is called:

(a) Reliability.

(b) Validity.

(d) Standardization.

None

19. What is the main advantage of using sampling in research?

A. Reduced data collection cost.

B. Increased data collection time.

C. Enhanced accuracy of findings.

D. Simplified research demands.

None

20. The type of questions used to obtain qualitative data from respondents are:

(a) Closed-ended questions.

(b) Likert scale questions.

(d) Multiple-choice questions.

None

21. What are the characteristics of pretested research?

(a) It involves testing participants before the main study.

(b) It ensures that the research is conducted for the first time.

(d) It involves testing hypotheses before the research.

None

22. APA in full is;

A. American Pharmacological Association

B. American Psychiatric Association

C. American Psychological Association

D. American Physiological Association

None

23. In which chapters are the results of a study presented in a research report?

a) Chapters 1-3

b) Chapter 4

c) Chapters 1-5

d) Chapter 5

None

24. The following is NOT a non-probability sampling

A. Snowballing

B. Quota sampling

C. Convenience sampling

D. Simple random sampling

None

25. Which type of error occurs when one wrongly assumes a relationship between variables that doesn't exist?

a) Type 1 Error

b) Type 2 Error

c) Null Error

d) Alternative Error

None

26. Which research approach is more likely to have highly biased results?

a) Qualitative

b) Quantitative

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

None

27. Which of the following is typically found in both a research proposal and a research report?

a) Dedication

b) Acknowledgment

c) Table of Contents

d) List of figures

None

28. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a literature review?

a) To summarize the entire research project

b) To identify weaknesses in existing knowledge

c) To bridge gaps in the literature

d) To provide data for future research directions

None

29. What does paraphrasing mean in the context of research writing?

a) Copying text word-for-word

b) Quoting without citation

c) Using different words to express the same meaning

d) Rewriting someone else's work entirely

None

30. You know we cant forget to appreciate you for reaching far, would free marks work for you?

Yah, why not!

Nope, give them to the needy!

None

31. The information that is collected during the research process is known as ………………?

32. Anything that can take on differing or varying values is a ……………..?

33. Sampling is an act of selecting a small number of subjects upon which a study is conducted to represent the _________?

34. In stratified random sampling, the population is divided into distinct subgroups called _________, and random samples are taken from each of these subgroups.

35. A proportion of the population selected for the study is known as …………………?

36. A cross-sectional study that is done on the entire population is known as ……………

37. Which caharacteristic of research tells us that results obtained can be generalized to the entire target population?

38. ................... sampling is used when it's difficult to identify or locate members of the population; initial subjects refer to additionalsubjects.

39………………………………… is copying and pasting someone’s work without permission.

40. .................. is the is a tentative statement or educated guess that suggests an expected outcome or prediction of a research study

Name

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Research Day 11 Quiz

Welcome to your Research Day 11 Quiz

No FullStops Should Be Used In Fill Ins

October 4, 2025

Attempt all numbers.

1. What is the main purpose of Chapter One in a research proposal?

a) Present research findings

b) Introduce the researcher's biography

c) Provide background and introduce the research topic

d) List references and citations

None

2. Which of the following is a non-probability sampling method?

(a) Snowball

(b) Random

(d) Stratified

None

3. Applied research

(a) is a theoretical research

(b) is intended for finding some solution to the problem considered

(d) uses available information as the base for further critical evaluation

None

4. Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?

(a) Age

(b) Height

(d) Weight

None

5. In the "Justification of the Study" section, what should be outlined regarding the research?

a) Its global significance

b) Its relevance to various stakeholders

c) Its methodology and data analysis

d) Its limitations and challenges

None

6. Which section of a research proposal narrates the problem from a global to local perspective?

a) Introduction of the Chapter

b) Background of the Study

c) Problem Statement

d) Specific Objectives

None

7. Which type of interview involves set questions and standardized answers?

(a) Direct personal interview

(b) Telephone interview

(d) Structured interview

None

8. What is the main purpose of data management?

(a) Data cleaning

(b) Data analysis

(d) Data dissemination

None

9. What does the term "et al." mean in a reference?

a. The title of the paper

b. The publication year

c. The list of authors

d. "And others" or additional authors

None

10. What is the main ethical consideration related to research?

(a) Confidentiality

(b) Privacy

(d) All of the above

None

11. Which scale of measurement involves classifying or ranking data in order of magnitude?

(a) Nominal

(b) Ordinal

(d) Ratio

None

12. Which formula involves the Z-score for the desired confidence level?

(a) Yamane formula

(b) Transfer from a similar study

(d) Census formula

None

13. What is the purpose of inclusion criteria in research?

(a) To determine sample size

(b) To identify non-sampling errors

(d) To define characteristics prospective subjects must have for inclusion

None

14. How can researchers reduce random sampling error?

(a) Use smaller sample sizes

(b) Use biased sampling methods

(d) Increase measurement errors

None

15. How many components does a research proposal have?

16. Citing sources properly is essential to avoid ____________.

17. In nursing, a minimum references to include in literature review should be ________?

18. The scale of measurement with an arbitrary zero is the........................scale?

19. The basic unit of the population under study is called a .................?

Name

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Research Day 11 Quiz Read More »

Research Day 10 Quiz

Welcome to your Research Day 10 Quiz

October 4, 2025

Attempt all questions

1. Which section of a research proposal typically includes the researcher's declaration and supervisor's approval?

A. Table of Contents

B. Preliminary Pages

C. Main Body

D. Appendices

None

2. What is the definition of sampling error in research?

A. An error that arises due to data collection mistakes.

B. An error resulting from the randomness of the sampling process.

C. An error introduced during data analysis.

D. An error due to poor research design.

None

3. What type of research design aims to establish causation through controlled experiments?

A. Descriptive

B. Correlational

C. Experimental

D. Comparative

None

4. What does "n" represent in the formula n = Z²pq / d² for sample size determination?

A. Margin of error

B. Sample size

C. Confidence level

D. Population size

None

5. When conducting a census for sample size determination, it is most suitable for which type of population?

A. Large populations

B. Medium-sized populations

C. Small populations

D. Random populations

None

6. What is the main advantage of a cross-sectional study?

A. Provides insights into cause-and-effect relationships

B. Predicts future outcomes

C. Quick and cost-effective

D. Enables study of changes over time

None

7. Which of the following is not a component of the preliminary pages in a research proposal?

A. List of Acronyms

B. Declaration

C. Table of Contents

D. Chapter One

None

8. Which factor may influence the choice of a sample size determination?

A. The researcher's favorite determination

B. Research Objectives

C. The size of the determination tool

D. The popularity of the determination in the research community

None

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of sampling error?

A. Random

B. Systemic

C. Experimental

D. Statistical

None

10. How does pretesting differ from pilot study in terms of data collection?

A. Pretesting relies on objective data.

B. Pretesting evaluates research instruments

C. Pretesting gathers qualitative data

D. Pretesting gathers non-numerical data.

None

11. .....................is a process of evaluating a research instrument?

12. When a population is small, sampling may not be necessary, when a researcher works with the entire population. This is known as a ____________.

13. The set of population to which the research results will be generalized is called the ____________ population.

14. A ................................. is a smaller, trial version of your research conducted on a limited scale..

15. In an experimental research design, the group that doesn't receive any intervention(Independent variable) is referred to as the _________________ group.

Name

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Palliative Care Certification Exam

Welcome to your Palliative Care Certification Exam

Do Not Use Fullstops in your Fill in answers.

You will get a certificate after the Exam, Remember to use your FULL NAME.

October 4, 2025

Attempt All Questions

Time Allowed: 2 hours

1. What is the primary focus of palliative care?

a) End-of-life care

b) Increasing life expectancy

c) Improving quality of life for serious illness

d) Providing curative treatments

None

2. When is it usually considered appropriate to provide palliative care?

a) Only in the final stages of an illness

b) Only for elderly patients

c) At any age and at any stage of a serious illness

d) Only for cancer patients

None

3. What is the definition of bereavement?

a) The emotional response to loss

b) The state of having lost something or someone

c) The period of mourning

d) The process of grieving

None

4. Which of the following factors can influence the way a person grieves?

a) The presence of strong support systems

b) The age of the bereaved

c) The gender of the person who passed away

d) All of the above

None

5. What does the holistic care approach in palliative care entail?

a) Focusing solely on physical symptoms

b) Providing spiritual care only

c) Treating patients as a whole, addressing physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs

d) Prioritizing emotional support

None

6. What is the primary advantage of facility-based palliative care?

a) Reduced travel time for patients

b) Greater community involvement

c) Immediate access to healthcare professionals and specialized equipment

d) Enhanced socialization

None

7. What is the term for grief that is not fully acknowledged or recognized by society, leading to a more complicated grieving process?

a) Cumulative grief

b) Maladaptive grief

c) Disenfranchised grief

d) Masked grief

None

8. What is the primary purpose of monitoring the respiratory rate in patients receiving morphine?

a. To measure the patient's oxygen saturation

b. To detect opioid addiction

c. To identify urinary retention

d. To assess for severe respiratory depression

None

9. What does the term "euthanasia" mean?

a) A happy and peaceful death

b) The practice of ending a person's life intentionally

c) Medical treatment to extend life

d) Pain management during the dying process

None

10. Which type of communication involves the exchange of ideas through spoken expression in words?

a) Verbal communication

b) Non-verbal communication

c) Closed-ended communication

d) Reflective communication

None

11. What does the "ROLES" acronym stand for in relation to body language indicating active listening?

a) Relaxed, Open, Lean, Empathetic, Summarized

b) Respected, Organized, Limited, Encouraging, Structured

c) Relaxed, Open, Lean, Eye contact, Sit near

d) Reflective, Optimistic, Linguistic, Energetic, Supportive

None

12. What is the concept of the "slippery slope" in euthanasia ethics?

a) A gradual decline in the quality of palliative care

b) Fear that legalizing euthanasia for specific cases may lead to broader acceptance

c) The likelihood of involuntary euthanasia

d) A slippery surface in healthcare facilities

None

13. What can be a psychological impact of euthanasia on healthcare professionals?

a) Increased job satisfaction

b) Emotional distress, guilt, or trauma

c) Strong sense of accomplishment

d) Elevation in salary

None

14. What technique involves warning, pausing, checking, and chunking when addressing difficult questions with children?

a) Tactful questioning

b) WPC Chunk Technique

c) Closed-ended questioning

d) Non-verbal communication

None

15. What is the most common and feared symptom among those nearing the end of life?

a) Nausea and vomiting

b) Fatigue

c) Pain

d) Depression

None

16. What is Near Death Awareness (NDA)?

a. A term used to describe a person's experiences of the dying process.

b. A type of medical treatment for the terminally ill.

c. A psychological disorder associated with the fear of death.

d. A form of assisted suicide.

None

17. Which type of pain involves damage to the peripheral nerves and is often described as burning, shooting, or electrical-like sensations?

a) Somatic pain

b) Central pain

c) Neuropathic pain

d) Visceral pain

None

18. What is the primary purpose of a living will?

A) To distribute the deceased's property

B) To appoint guardians for minor children

C) To outline medical treatment preferences

D) To name an executor

None

19. Which type of pain involves pain originating from organs and is often described as crampy, nagging, or dull?

a) Visceral pain

b) Somatic pain

c) Central pain

d) Peripheral pain

None

20. Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of total pain?

a) Physical

b) Psychological

c) Social

d) Medical

None

21. What does the FLACC Pain Scale assess primarily?

a) Self-reported pain intensity

b) Pain location on a body chart

c) Pain-related behaviors in non-communicative individuals

d) Pain duration and changes over time

None

22. What is the first step in the WHO Analgesic Ladder for pain management?

a. Strong opioids

b. Weak opioids

c. Non-opioids

d. Adjuvant medications

None

23. Which principle of effective pain management emphasizes administering analgesics at regular intervals and titrating the dose against pain?

a. By the mouth

b. By the clock

c. By the ladder

d. By the patient

None

24. What is the primary purpose of breaking bad news to a patient?

a) To provide false hope

b) To avoid informing the patient about their condition

c) To reduce uncertainty and help the patient make informed decisions

d) To maintain trust

None

25. What is the maximum daily dose of paracetamol recommended for adults?

a. 1 gram

b. 2 grams

c. 3 grams

d. 4 grams

None

26. Which pharmacological agent is primarily used to manage bone pain in palliative care?

a. Gabapentin

b. Morphine

c. Bisphosphonates

d. Codeine

None

27. What should be done with expired or rejected class A drugs like morphine?

a. They should be sold to patients at a discount.

b. They should be disposed of following WHO guidelines.

c. They can be used for educational purposes.

d. They should be given to other healthcare providers.

None

28. What is breakthrough pain in the relation of pain management?

A) A pain intensity level below the patient's tolerance threshold.

B) A sudden, severe flare-up of pain that occurs despite ongoing pain management.

C) Pain that can be relieved with over-the-counter pain relievers.

D) Chronic pain that gradually worsens over time.

None

29. What is the purpose of a breakthrough dose in pain management?

A) To replace the patient's regular pain medication.

B) To serve as the primary pain relief method.

C) To provide extra pain relief during episodes of sudden, severe pain.

D) To reduce the need for any pain medication.

None

30. Free mark? Okay, but do you know Cumulative grief?

Yes, Grief related to multiple losses

I think yes! Cumulative is like cumulative curve, up up up!

None

31. The term that refers to a dying person's experience of the death process is referred to as.........................?

32. Palliative care begins from the time of ________ and extends beyond the patient's passing.

33. In palliative care, communication is considered complete when there is ____________.

34. When addressing difficult questions in children's palliative care, the "WPC Chunk Technique" involves the components: Warn, Pause, ____________, and Chunk.

35. Regular _______________ are needed in all patients who receive opiates to prevent constipation.

36. ___________ involves inserting thin needles at specific points on the body to stimulate energy flow and reduce pain.

37. In cases of severe respiratory depression, the opioid receptor antagonist __________ can be used as an antidote.

38. The foundation of all effective communication is............?

39. A patient who fails to accept his or her diagnosis is said to be in ...............?

40. ...................... is the type of grief before an expected loss.

Name

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Palliative Care Certification Exam Read More »

test

Welcome to your test

2 l 3

None

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Palliative Care Week 3 UNMEB Exam

Welcome to your Palliative Care Week 3 UNMEB Exam

ALL QUESTIONS ARE SOURCED FROM UNMEB PAST PAPERS

DO NOT USE FULL STOPS WHILE ANSWERING FILL IN QUESTIONS

Attempt All Questions

October 4, 2025

1. Which of the following drugs is recommended for a cancer patient experiencing mild pain?

(a) Paracetamol.

(b) Codeine.

(d) Ibuprofen.

None

2. Which of the following is NOT a component of holistic palliative care?

(a) Emotional care.

(b) Symptom relief.

(d) Psychological care.

None

3. The classical signs and symptoms of a patient with hypercalcaemia include

(a) nausea and vomiting.

(b) decreased pain.

(d) loss of sensation.

None

4. Which of the following should NOT be included in a will?

(a) Bio-data of the writer.

(b) Family property.

(d) Property of the writer.

None

5. Who among the following is NOT a member of the palliative care team?

(a) Nurses.

(b) Patient.

(d) Support staff.

None

6. Metastatic spinal cord compression commonly occur in patients with

(a) metastatic breast cancer.

(b) severe unremitting back pain.

(d) metastatic vertebral disease.

None

7. Which of the following protective mechanism will take a bereaved person to the funeral?

(a) Anger.

(b) Disbelief.

(d) Guilt.

None

8. Which of the following manifestations is NOT a sign of complicated grief?

(a) Social withdraw.

(b) Substance abuse.

(d) Increased libido.

None

9. Which of the following parameters does NOT affect a person's response to a loss?

(a) Age.

(b) Significance of the loss.

(d) Spiritual disbelief.

None

10. Nurses should assess the severity of pain based on behavioral indicators using

(a) FLACC scale.

(b) self-reporting scale.

(d) numerical scale.

None

11. Which of the following conditions causes somatic pain?

(a) Herpes simplex.

(b) Herpes zoster.

(d) Headache.

None

12. Which of the following is a cognitive response to loss and grief?

(a) Abandonment.

(b) Anger.

(d) Loneliness.

None

13. Which of the following should nurses assess during the neurological examination of a dying patient?

(a) Skin color.

(b) Respiration rate.

(d) Level of consciousness.

None

14. Which of the following is NOT a physical response to loss and grief?

(a) Appetite change.

(b) Palpitations.

(d) Fear.

None

15. Which of the following interventions is most effective for improving dyspnoea?

(a) Walking aid.

(b) Breathing training.

(d) Chest wall vibration.

None

16. Which of the following statements best describes neuropathic pain?

(a) Pain is usually treated with anti-inflammatory agents.

(b) It is a result of disordered nerve function.

(d) Rarely responds to opioid analgesics.

None

17. Which of the following statements is true concerning the WHO analgesic ladder for pain management?

(a) Dosage is determined on an individual basis.

(b) Persistent pain requires regular dosing.

(d) Treatment should only move stepwise up not down.

None

Hint

18. Which of the following routes of drug administration is NOT appropriate for opioids administered to manage pain in palliative care?

(a) Transmucosal.

(b) Intramuscular.

(d) Intrathecal.

None

19. Nurses should accurately assess pain in children under two years of age using:

(a) smiley face.

(b) numerical finger assessment.

(d) degree of crying.

None

20. The recommended protocol for preventing constipation among patients getting started on opioids is to:

(a) increase bulk fiber in the diet.

(b) increase fluids and exercises.

(d) use bowel stimulants and stool softeners.

None

21. Which of the following is NOT a priority concern that should be addressed in the terminal care of children?

(a) Nutrition.

(b) Pain.

(d) Pity.

None

22. While dispelling myths in a health education session, the nurse educating the patients emphasizes that morphine:

(a) causes constipation.

(b) is given to dying patients only.

(d) quickens death in terminally ill patients.

None

Hint

23. A strong belief based on spiritual apprehension rather than objective proof of something is referred to as:

(a) Religion.

(b) Spirituality.

(d) Culture

None

24. Which of the following terms refers to a society's response to loss?

(a) Grieving.

(b) Mourning.

(d) Anger.

None

25. The purpose of palliative care is to meet the:

(a) physiological.

(b) social and spiritual.

(d) physical, psychological, social, and spiritual.

None

26. A principle of palliative care that looks at the total aspect of a patient is called ..................?

27. A progressive illness with distressing symptoms that cannot be cured by any treatment is termed as a ...................... illness?

28. A gurgling sound heard in a dying patient's throat is termed as .............?

29. A document written by a patient on palliative care communicating his/her wishes is called a ...................?

30. On a scale of 1 to 10, how well do you think you are ready for a palliative care?

Name

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Palliative Care Day 7 Quiz

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 7 Quiz

October 4, 2025

Do not use full stops in fill ins.

Attempt all Numbers.

1. The concept that acknowledges that pain is not just a physical phenomenon but has psychological, social, and spiritual dimensions is:

(a) Total pain

(b) Nociceptive pain

(d) Comprehensive pain

None

2. Headaches associated with increased intracranial pressure due to cryptococcal meningitis will respond well to:

(a) Amitriptyline

(b) Dexamethasone

(d) Phenytoin

None

Hint

3. The psychological response or feeling resulting from loss is:

(a) Crying

(b) Bereavement

(d) Mourning

None

4. What is the aim of rehabilitation in community-based palliative care?

(a) Help the patient achieve his functional capacity before illness

(b) To make patients attain complete physical fitness

(d) Make a patient fit enough to attend hospital services

None

5. Why is there a need for palliative care in older people?

(a) Due to increased cancer rate in elderly

(b) Nobody cares for older people

(d) Old people suffer from chronic illness

None

6. The most important supportive therapy to consider when starting patients on opioids is:

(a) Anti-depressants for pain relief

(b) NSAIDS for adjuvant pain

(d) Laxatives to prevent constipation

None

7. Which of the following side effects of opioid analgesics does NOT develop pharmacological tolerance?

(a) Constipation

(b) Nausea

(d) Sedation

None

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding neuropathic pain?

(a) Due to direct stimulation of Nociceptors

(b) Rarely responsive to opioid analgesics

(d) A disorder of nerve function

None

9. Which of the following questions help in the assessment of pain among adults?

(a) Have you noticed a fever?

(b) How do you feel all-over?

(d) How does it affect your life?

None

10. Which of the following best defines bereavement?

(a) Way of expressing grief

(b) Great sadness felt by an individual

(d) Feeling the social impact of loss

None

11. Which of the following is NOT a spiritual need?

(a) Isolation

(b) Forgiveness

(d) Love

None

12. One of the following is a tool for assessing the severity of pain relying on behavioral indicators:

(a) FLACC scale

(b) Numerical scale

(d) QUESTT scale

None

13. Which of the following may NOT cause hiccups?

(a) Lowering of diaphragm

(b) Central nervous tumor

(d) Irritation of the phrenic nerve

None

14. The most common symptom of disease of the oral cavity in terminally ill patients is:

(a) Anorexia

(b) Halitosis

(d) Dehydration

None

15. Which of the following refers to the principle of palliative care where a client is regarded as a whole person?

(a) Teamwork and partnership

(b) Holistic approach

(d) Patient-centered care

None

16. Drugs that can help complement the analgesic ladder when used in the control of pain are termed as ......................?

17. A simple visual scale used to assess pain is known as the .....................?

18. The need to increase the drug over time to get the same therapeutic effect is termed as .....................?

19. The stage that marks the end of grieving or mourning is known as...............stage?

20. Just a month to Exams, do you feel you will be ready by then?

Yes, hopefully!

Trying my best!

None

Name

Time's up

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Teaching Methodology Day 8 UNMEB Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 8 UNMEB Quiz

DO NOT ADD FULL STOPS IN FILL IN's

Attempt All Questions

October 4, 2025

1. Which of the following is a major role of an educator?

(a) Negotiate.

(b) Facilitate.

(d) Communicate.

None

2. Which of the following approaches should educators employ to impart skills to their learners?

(a) Modified lecture.

(b) Small group discussion.

(d) Demonstration.

None

3. Which of the following is a measurable characteristic that assumes different values?

(a) Data

(b) Variable

(d) Theory

None

4. Which of the following enhances effectiveness of teaching and learning?

(a) Keeping students busy.

(b) Out-dated knowledge.

(d) Employing active techniques.

None

5. Students have an opportunity to explore for more information during

(a) modified lectures.

(b) self-directed learning.

(d) practical field visits.

None

6. The difference between adult and child learning methods is.

(a) ability to utilize past experiences in training.

(b) desire to participate the learning experience.

(d) need to involve the learner in the learning.

None

7. Which of the following phrases sums up the lecture method of teaching?

(a) Teacher-centered.

(b) Student-centered.

(d) Activity-based.

None

8. Which of the following learning domains requires use and coordination of the skeletal muscles?

(a) Cognitive.

(b) Psychomotor.

(d) Psychological.

None

9. Which of the following is NOT an audio-visual aid?

(a) Television.

(b) Radio.

(d) Video tapes.

None

10. For which of the following reasons should people observe research ethics?

(a) Make the research clear.

(b) Make the research valid.

(d) Promote research rules.

None

11. Which of the following should nurses use to collect data from an illiterate group of participants?

(a) Focus group discussion.

(b) Self-administered questionnaires.

(d) Key informant interview.

None

12. Which of the following categories of individuals heads and guides the research process?

(a) Respondent.

(b) Informer.

(d) Investigator.

None

13. Which of the following terms refers to the area where the research will be conducted?

(a) Map.

(b) Geographical area.

(d) Study setting.

None

14. Which of the following terms refers to the idea of interest that the researcher wants to study?

(a) Problem.

(b) Abstract.

(d) Hypothesis.

None

15. Which of the following is NOT a data collection technique?

(a) Interviewing.

(b) Questionnaire.

(d) Observation.

None

16. Which of the following statements is true concerning quantitative research?

(a) Collection of non-numerical data.

(b) Attempts to confirm the researcher's hypothesis.

(d) It attempts to generate a new theory.

None

17. Under which section of the study are research participants described in detail?

(a) Discussion.

(b) Literature review.

(d) Introduction.

None

18. Which of the following ethical principles underpins voluntary and informed consent?

(a) Beneficence.

(b) Autonomy.

(d) Respect.

None

19. Which of the following correctly describes an abstract?

(a) Particular and realistic.

(b) Realistic and general.

(d) Concrete and specific.

None

20. How do you feel after taking the above 19 Objectives?

Feel fantastic, I need more! Oliver Twist

I think I need to read more, Eh!

None

21. The type of assessment performed at the end of the learning period is called .................. assessment.

22. The accuracy with which a test measures what it is intended to measure is called........?

23. The process of obtaining a portion out of the available population to participate in a research study is referred to as.............?

24. The process of ascertaining or judging the value of teaching and learning processes is termed as .........?

25. A perplexing or enigmatic situation that a researcher wants to address through disciplined inquiry is a ..............................?

26. The method of teaching that is often used at the beginning of a session to generate multiple ideas about a topic is...........?

27. After a clinical day, students come together with their supervisor to discuss the day's achievements. This is referred to as.....................?

28. A student researcher moves to the field to gather information to confirm or disprove their topic during a process known as.........................?

29. The brief description of the study that is placed at the beginning of the research report is an ............?

30. ..................... assessment is a form of assessment that allows the teacher to check for student understanding along the way, as the lesson or unit is being taught.

Name

Time's up

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Teaching Methodology Day 7 UNMEB Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 7 UNMEB Quiz

It is 100% UNMEB Questions from Past Papers

Attempt All Questions

October 4, 2025

1. In research, a characteristic whose value relies on that of another is called the............ variable.

(a) independent.

(b) independence.

(d) dependence.

None

2. Every subject in the population has an equal chance of being chosen or selected to participate in a research study through..........sampling.

(a) snowball.

(b) purposive.

(d) probability.

None

3. A study design where data is collected over two or more points in time is called

(a) retrospective.

(b) prospective.

(d) longitudinal.

None

4. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research design except for the fact that it

(a) relies primarily on the collection of numerical data.

(b) can produce important knowledge.

(d) is rarely conducted in a controlled setting or environment.

None

5. Which of the following clusters comprises of quantitative variables?

(a) Age, temperature, income, height.

(b) Grade point average, anxiety level, performance level readings.

(d) Hair color, favorite movie, and civil status.

None

6. The introductory section of the research plan

(a) gives an overview of prior relevant studies.

(b) contains a statement of the purpose of the study.

(d) includes the research hypothesis.

None

7. In which of the following non-random sampling techniques does the researcher ask the participants to identify other potential research participants?

(a) Convenience.

(b) Snowball.

(d) Quota.

None

8. The agreement made by the participants to take part in a research project after a description of the research process is known as

(a) human dignity.

(b) full disclosure.

(d) informed consent.

None

9. Which of the following is NOT a method of data collection?

(a) Questionnaires.

(b) Interviews.

(d) Observation.

None

10. An investigator who goes to get study participants from a clinic where he personally knows several diabetics facing problems with insulin administration is conducting a type of sampling called

(a) probability.

(b) purposive.

(d) quota.

None

11. The type of evaluation that monitors learners' progress is called

(a) test.

(b) placement.

(d) summative.

None

12. Fixation of correct information through repetition is achieved through

(a) lectures.

(b) demonstrations.

(d) drills.

None

13. Which of the following factors determines how, what, and when students learn?

(a) Content relevance.

(b) Language simplicity.

(d) Teaching methodology.

None

14. Which of the following steps should be performed first in the teaching process?

(a) Re-teaching.

(b) Evaluation.

(d) Presentation of teaching materials.

None

15. Which of the following is NOT an audio-visual aid?

(a) Television.

(b) Radio.

(d) Video tapes.

None

16. In which of the following methods of teaching is knowledge transferred from a teacher to a passive learner?

(a) Lecture.

(b) Demonstration.

(d) Simulation.

None

17. The following are examples of written communication except:

(a) notes.

(b) records.

(d) grapevine.

None

18. The communication process is complete when the:

(a) sender transmits the message.

(b) message enters the channel.

(d) receiver understands the message.

None

19. Which of the following is the most important factor for assimilation of new learning to occur?

(a) Demotivation.

(b) Deactivation.

(d) Motivation.

None

20. Which of the following domains requires the use and coordination of skeletal muscles during learning?

(a) Psychological.

(b) Psychomotor.

(d) Affective.

None

21. A study that involves looking backward in time is referred to as........?

22. A collection of sources of literature that a researcher has used in formulating the literature is called............?

23. The degree of consistency of a research instrument to bring the same results all the time is called.......?

24. The ethical principle in research that ensures the well-being of the respondents is termed as ....?

25. How was this Paper? (Assessing Attitude)

Easy, i liked it.

Hard, i cant imagine those who sat it!

I don't know where i lie

None

Name

Time's up

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