Quizzes & Surveys - Page 11 of 13

Disaster Management Day 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Disaster Management Day 3 Quiz

June 18, 2025

Attempt All Questions

1. What is the primary aim of Disaster Management?

a) Economic recovery

b) Minimizing suffering and damage

c) Increasing property losses

d) Enhancing infrastructure development

None

2. Which phase of the Disaster Management cycle involves implementing programs to avoid a disaster?

a) Mitigation

b) Preparedness

c) Response

d) Recovery

None

3. What does the "Preparedness" phase of Disaster Management involve?

a) Emergency response during a disaster

b) Swift recovery efforts

c) Developing response plans and training personnel

d) Recovery and rehabilitation activities

None

4. What is the main purpose of "Triage" during a disaster?

a) Sorting treatable from untreatable victims

b) Providing long-term care

c) Minimizing emergency response

d) Prioritizing resource allocation

None

5. What are the two types of mitigation activities?

a) Pre-Disaster and Post-Disaster mitigation

b) Structural and Non-structural mitigation

c) Public education and community involvement

d) Emergency response and disaster recovery

None

6. What is the main goal of "Early Warning Systems" in disaster preparedness?

a) Providing immediate assistance to disaster victims

b) Raising awareness of disaster risksx

c) Ensuring resource availability

d) Providing timely warnings and alerts

None

7. What is the primary aim of disaster response during the relief phase?

A. To prevent further casualties

B. To assess the well-being of medical staff

C. To minimize damage

D. To relieve suffering

None

8. Which category in the triage coding represents individuals with life-threatening injuries, such as hypoxia, shock, and severe burns?

A. Yellow

B. Green

C. Red

D. Black

None

9. What is the primary responsibility of nurses in dealing with stressed victims during disaster response?

A. Providing immediate medical care

B. Assisting in search and rescue operations

C. Encouraging appropriate sharing of feelings among victims

D. Repairing damaged infrastructure

None

10. What is the goal of maintaining or restoring critical activities during disaster response?

A. Rebuilding homes and businesses

B. Maximizing the number of survivors

C. Offering long-term support to affected communities

D. Ensuring the continuity of essential services

None

11. The color code used for casualties who have life-threatening injuries is............?

12. The fourth step in the conventional circle of disaster management is known as........?

13. Provision of immediate assistance to maintain life in a population affected by a disaster is termed as.............?

14. The probability of a hazard causing a disease or an injury to a worker is known as a ......?

15. How many phases are followed during disaster management?

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Disaster Management Day 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Disaster Management Day 2 Quiz

June 18, 2025

Remember to use your full name, Lets try out a Certificate we see.

Attempt All Questions

1. What is the primary agent responsible for causing injury or destruction in disasters?

a) Host

b) Environment

c) Agent

d) Scope

None

2. Residual risk refers to the risk that remains even after implementing comprehensive mitigation, preparedness, and response measures. Which of the following is an example of residual risk?

a) Your home being destroyed by an earthquake

b) Eating certain foods with a small risk of food poisoning

c) Living in an area prone to earthquakes

d) Investing in the stock market

None

3. In the Disaster Action Phase, what is the stage that involves assessing the nature and impact of the disaster and evaluating victims' needs?

a) Pre-Impact Phase

b) Impact Phase

c) Post-Impact Phase

d) Triage Phase

None

4. Earthquakes are sudden movements within the Earth's crust accompanied by earth vibrations. Which prevention measure can reduce earthquake risk?

a) Land use planning in flood-prone areas

b) Afforestation in catchment areas

c) Proper construction materials and quake-resistant building design

d) Control of pest infestations

None

5. What term describes an occurrence of a disease that surpasses the usual frequency for a specific place and time?

a) Epidemic

b) Hazard

c) Catastrophe

d) Triage

None

6. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of a disaster?

a) Displacement of people

b) Economic Impact

c) Environmental Damage

d) Enhanced Communication Systems

None

7. What term is used to describe emergency situations resulting from deliberate human actions that lead to casualties, loss of basic services, and livelihood?

a) Geological Disasters

b) Human-Caused Calamities

c) Anthropogenic Catastrophes

d) Human-Made Disasters

None

8. What action is recommended in dealing with Mines and Unexploded Ordnances (UXOs) in affected areas?

a) Develop and implement victim support systems

b) Map out mine-contaminated areas

c) Establish well-equipped hospital emergency facilities

d) Conduct destruction of stockpiles of dangerous arms and ammunition

None

9. What is the key to addressing transport-related accidents and improving road safety?

a) Introducing bus transport in urban centers

b) Establishing well-equipped hospital emergency facilities

c) Enforcing the Road Traffic Act

d) Increasing entry and exit roads for urban centers

None

10. What are the stages of emotional response that disaster victims typically go through?

a) Anger, shock, acceptance, recovery

b) Denial, strong emotional response, acceptance, recovery.

c) Shock, denial, acceptance, recovery

d) Recovery, denial, anger, acceptance

None

Hint

11. What is the main role of health workers in helping disaster victims during the "strong emotional response" stage?

a) Discussing empowerment issues

b) Resettling victims and providing access to facilities

c) Providing counseling and reassurance

d) Developing decision-making skills

None

12. What is the long-term impact of some disasters, such as nuclear accidents?

a) Rapid recovery and return to normalcy

b) Environmental recovery only

c) Prolonged health and environmental consequences

d) Increased resource availability

None

13. The triangle that is used to understand the relationship between work, health, and disease is known as the

(a) environmental triad.

(b) epidemiologic model.

(d) environmental model.

None

14. The first you should do if you discover fire in your work place is to;

a) Alert the police

b) Ensure your own safety

c) Alert the fire department

d) Ensure the safety of other workers

None

15. Do you think giving downloadable certificates after a quiz is a good way of motivation?

Yah, let's give it a try!

Nah, yo trippin'

None

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Occupational Health ft. Disaster Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Occupational Health ft. Disaster Week 1 Exam

Occupational Health ft. Disaster Week 1 Exam

Please use your Email after answering so that you get a copy of your results and detailed corrections. Good Luck

Attempt All Questions

June 18, 2025

1. Occupational health and safety refers to:

a. The promotion of worker’s wellbeing in all occupations

b. The physical, social, psychological well being of workers in all occupations

c. The promotion and maintenance of the highest degree of physical, mental social well- being of workers in all occupations

d. The promotion and maintenance of the highest degree of wellbeing of workers in all occupations

None

2. These are biological hazards except:

a. Bacteria

b. Sharps

c. Parasites

d. Fungi

None

3. Any activity/substance/situation that has a potential to cause injury to a health worker in a working environment is termed as:

a. Risk

b. Accident

c. Hazard

d. Terrible

None

4. Nurses and Midwives are legally charged with the responsibility of protecting themselves, patients, colleagues from infections by use of hand washing. All these are done before hand washing except:

a. Removal of jewelry

b. Covering cuts/abrasions

c. Maintaining fingers short

d. Applying cleansing agent

None

5. After administering an injection to a patient this is not disposed off in a safety box:

a. Swabs

b. Lancets

c. Needles

d. Glass ampoules

None

6. All these must be present in a working environment for an occupational accident to occur:

a. The worker

b. The tool

c. The process

d. All the above

None

7. A nurse or midwife conducting delivery in labor room prevents amniotic fluid from splashing into the mouth by use of:

a. Goggle

b. Mask

c. Cap

d. Apron

None

8. The most appropriate container for disposal of used dressings after wound care is:

a. Black bucket

b. White bucket

c. Brown bucket

d. Yellow bucket

None

9. Working overtime due to many patients is an example of:

a. Physical occupational hazard

b. Mechanical occupational hazard

c. Psychological occupational hazard

d. Chemical occupational hazard

None

10. These diseases are associated with exposure to psycho-social hazards except:

a. Peptic ulcer

b. Hypertension

c. Depression

d. Dysentery

None

11. ...................……………… refers to infection control measures designed to protect health workers from exposure to biological hazards.

a. Infection chain actions

b. Universal precautions

c. Aseptic techniques

d. Sterilization techniques

None

12. These actions control workplace cross-infections except

a. Hand washing

b. Proper disposal of waste

c. Septic techniques

d. Sterilizing equipment

None

13. All these are common routes for chemical hazard exposure at the workplace except:

a. Inhalation

b. Skin contact

c. Blood contact

d. Ingestion

None

14. The gas responsible for poisoning in most health facility kitchens is:

a. Nitrogen

b. Carbon monoxide

c. Carbon dioxide

d. Ammonia

None

15. Which of these is the most important aim of occupational safety and health:

a. Prevention of needless destruction of resources

b. Promote accident prevention

c. Raise workers' morale

d. All the above

None

16. When a wound is created by dry heat, it is termed as:

a. Scald

b. Burn

c. Ulcer

d. Necrosis

None

17. What is the key component of vulnerability in disaster management?

a. Social well-being

b. Economic status

c. Physical capacity

d. Environmental sustainability

None

18. What does disaster risk refer to?

a. The likelihood of specific hazards affecting people

b. The aftermath of environmental disasters

c. The acceptable level of risk in a community

d. The impact of primary agents in a disaster

None

19. What is meant by acceptable risk in disaster management?

a. The risk that remains after implementing mitigation measures

b. The highest level of risk that can be tolerated in a community

c. The risk perceived by the community

d. The risk associated with biological hazards

None

20. Which of the following is an example of a slow-onset disaster?

a. Earthquake

b. Hurricane

c. Drought

d. Tsunami

None

21. What key component of disaster management encompasses factors like age, immune status, and pre-existing health conditions?

a. Vulnerability

b. Disaster risk

c. Intensity

d. Triage

None

22. Which type of disaster results from failures or malfunctions of technological systems or human-made structures?

a. Geophysical disaster

b. Biological disaster

c. Technological disaster

d. Climatological disaster

None

23. What does the post-impact phase of disaster management focus on?

a. Disaster preparedness

b. Relief efforts and survival

c. Recovery and rehabilitation

d. Immediate evacuation

None

24. Which term is used for the geographic area and social dimension impacted by a disaster?

a. Scope

b. Intensity

c. Frequency

d. Controllability

None

25. What type of disaster can cause extensive damage, social disruption, and interrupt lifeline services?

a. Technological disaster

b. Slow-onset disaster

c. Biological disaster

d. Catastrophic situation

None

26. What is the role of epidemiology in disaster analysis?

a. Predict the occurrence of disasters

b. Provide early warning of disasters

c. Examine patterns of disease occurrence related to disasters

d. Coordinate disaster response efforts

None

27. What term is used for events like earthquakes, hurricanes, floods, tornadoes, wildfires, and pandemics?

a. Natural disasters

b. Slow-onset disasters

c. Technological disasters

d. Man-made disasters

None

28. Which level of prevention aims to prevent exposure to hazards in the first place?

a. Primary prevention

b. Secondary prevention

c. Tertiary prevention

d. Engineering prevention

None

29. What is the hierarchy of controls prioritization based on effectiveness?

a. Engineering controls > Elimination > Administrative controls > Isolation > Substitution > PPE

b. Elimination > Substitution > Isolation > Engineering controls > Administrative controls > PPE

c. PPE > Engineering controls > Isolation > Administrative controls > Elimination > Substitution

d. Isolation > Substitution > Administrative controls > PPE > Elimination > Engineering controls

None

30. You know we cant forget to appreciate you for reaching this far, would free marks work for you?

Yah, why not.

Nah, give it to the needy

None

31. ................................... refers to diseases that are acquired by a patient during the hospital stay but which were not present in the patient at the time of admission.

32. The color code used for casualties who have life-threatening injuries is.........?

33. The probability of a hazard causing a disease or an injury to a worker is known as..........?

34. Continuous exposure to stress due to being overworked leads to a syndrome called.......?

Hint

35. The process of evaluating the likelihood of hazards is called..............?

36. A type of occupation hazard that is likely to affect people working in the melting section is.............?

37. Improper lifting of a patient is an example of ................... hazards.

38. Long exposure of patients/health workers to cold leads to ..........?

Hint

39. A .......................... is an unexpected and catastrophic event that disrupts the normal functioning of a community, exceeding its capacity to cope using its own resources.

40. The number of times certain disasters occur in a certain geographical area /location is ..........?

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Occupational Health Day 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Occupational Health Day 3 Quiz

June 18, 2025

Attempt All Questions

1. What does PPE stand for?

a. Personal Patient Equipment

b. Protective Personnel Equipment

c. Personal Protective Equipment

d. Public Health Equipment

None

2. Which of the following is NOT categorized as PPE?

a. Masks

b. Gloves

c. Hand sanitizer

d. Gowns

None

3. What is the primary purpose of N95 masks?

a. Protecting against splashes of blood and body fluids

b. Filtering very small airborne particles

c. Providing comfort during long shifts

d. Shielding the environment from the wearer's emissions

None

4. What are the four elements required for a fire to exist?

a. Oxygen, fuel, water, and heat

b. Oxygen, heat, smoke, and fuel

c. Oxygen, heat, fuel, and a chemical reaction

d. Oxygen, carbon dioxide, fuel, and a spark

None

5. Which class of fire involves flammable liquids and gases?

a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

d. Class K

None

6. What is the recommended approach for extinguishing a fire with a fire extinguisher?

a. Aim at the flames, then sweep the nozzle from side to side

b. Begin by sweeping the nozzle, then aim at the base of the fire

c. Squeeze the lever while aiming away from the fire

d. Pull the pin and release the extinguishing agent at once

None

7. What should you do in case of an accidental needle prick?

a. Wash the wound with alcohol

b. Avoid bleeding and seal the wound

c. Immediately dispose of the needle in a regular bin

d. Allow the wound to bleed and wash it with soap and water

None

8. What is the definition of job stress?

a. Feeling overwhelmed by daily tasks

b. Stress caused by personal life issues

c. Harmful physical and emotional responses due to work demands

d. Temporary stress caused by a challenging project

None

9. What is a common outcome of chronic job stress?

a. Increased job satisfaction

b. Enhanced work-life balance

c. Burnout

d. Improved productivity

None

10. What is the primary element removed by carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to extinguish fires?

a. Fuel

b. Oxygen

c. Heat

d. Smoke

None

11. What is an example of a short-term stress reaction to a sudden and unexpected event?

a. Acute stress

b. Episodic acute stress

c. Chronic stress

d. Role conflict

None

12. Which of the following is an example of general waste in healthcare facilities?

a. Needles and scalpels

b. Body fluids and human tissue

c. Office paper and kitchen waste

d. Radioactive materials

None

13. What color is typically used for bins that hold infectious waste?

a. Yellow

b. Red

c. Brown

d. Black

None

14. Which type of waste is highly infectious and may include anatomical parts?

a. Toxic waste

b. General waste

c. Pathological waste

d. Radioactive waste

None

15. Which of the following is NOT a treatment and disposal technique for healthcare waste?

a. Incineration

b. Wet and dry thermal treatment

c. Microwave irradiation

d. Recycling

None

16. Which waste treatment technique involves mixing waste with cement and other substances to inhibit migration into surface and groundwater?

a. Incineration

b. Chemical disinfection

c. Land disposal

d. Inertization

None

17. In healthcare facilities, who is responsible for managing the systematic collection of medical waste?

a. The patients

b. Sanitation personnel

c. The hospital administration

d. Local government authorities

None

18. Waste ................... is the first step in waste management.

19. ................................... is the practice of separating different types of waste at the source to ensure proper handling and disposal.

Which class of fire involves fire generated by electric current?

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Occupational Health Day 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Occupational Health Day 2 Quiz

98% OF ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS QUIZ ARE FROM UNMEB PAST PAPERS

Attempt All Questions

June 18, 2025

1. Which of the following protects workers from the physical effects of high temperatures?

(a) Ceilings.

(b) Wide windows.

(d) Fridge.

None

2. Which of the following is NOT a route through which people may get exposed to chemical hazards?

(a) Blood contact.

(b) Inhalation.

(d) Ingestion.

None

3. Which of the following hazard control methods involves removing all potential risks?

(a) Elimination.

(b) Isolation.

(d) Destruction.

None

4. Which of the following explains why occupational hazards are on the rise in Uganda?

(a) Use of out-dated machinery.

(b) Poor networking with other departments.

(d) Poor maintenance of machinery and buildings.

None

5. Which of the following is NOT used in hazard identification?

(a) Laboratory test.

(b) Control assessment.

(d) Risk assessment.

None

6. Which of the following is a pathological waste?

(a) Waste with microbes.

(b) Expired drugs.

(d) Human body parts.

None

7. Which of the following is the most practical way of managing losses from job related injuries?

(a) Be part of the labour contract.

(b) Ensure effective and aggressive claims handling.

(d) Provision of good insurance coverage.

None

8. Which of the following is NOT a component of post exposure prophylaxis?

(a) Report the incident.

(b) Carry out risk assessment.

(d) Initiate post exposure prophylaxis.

None

9. Which of the following actions should be taken when liquor amnii suddenly enters a midwife's mouth?

(a) Slap the mother hard on her face.

(b) Rinse the mouth with plenty of water.

(d) Inform the in-charge immediately.

None

10. Which of the following body organs does NOT excrete chemical hazards from the body?

(a) Lungs.

(b) Kidneys.

(d) Heart.

None

11. Which of the following conditions is related to work environment forces?

(a) Tallipes.

(b) Bone tumours.

(d) Hypertension

None

12. In managing work place safety and health, the recommended practice is

(a) active approach.

(b) proactive approach.

(d) traditional approach.

None

13. Which of the following is considered as priority in the disaster preparedness and prevention?

(a) Sick children only.

(b) HIV patients only.

(d) Vulnerable people.

None

14. The following are measures utilized in primary prevention of health hazards except?

(a). Health education

(b). Establishing and enforcing health and safety regulations

(c). Prevention of further injury

(d). Engineering controls

None

15. An event managed locally without the need of added response measure is called

(a) sustainability.

(b) emergency.

(d) triage.

None

16. Hazard ................................. involves determining the likelihood and severity of harm related to the harzard.

17. Stress as a result of over work is also referred to as..................?

18. The most effective control mechanism for the spread of hepatitis B virus among health workers is..........?

19. ........................refers to the loss of function of an organ or part of the body compared to its previous state

20. The most effective method of hazard control is ............?

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Occupational Health Day 1 Quiz

Welcome to your Occupational Health Day 1 Quiz

June 18, 2025

Attempt all questions

1. What is the primary objective of Occupational Health and Safety (OHS)?

a) To maximize profits for businesses

b) To ensure workers have a safe and healthy work environment

c) To reduce the working hours for employees

d) To promote unhealthy working conditions

None

2. What is the aim of Occupational Epidemiology?

a) Studying the occurrence of diseases in relation to work-related factors

b) Promoting workplace accidents

c) Analyzing workplace productivity

d) Assessing employee satisfaction

None

3. What is the purpose of Risk Assessment in OHS?

a) Identifying and evaluating potential risks and hazards in the workplace

b) Promoting workplace hazards

c) Ensuring all workers wear personal protective equipment (PPE)

d) Providing health education to workers

None

4. What is Workplace Ergonomics in OHS?

a) Adapting work to fit the capabilities and limitations of workers

b) Enhancing workplace aesthetics

c) Promoting workplace discomfort

d) Encouraging long working hours

None

5. What does Occupational Health Surveillance involve?

a) Collecting data on workplace productivity

b) Monitoring employees' social media activities

c) Collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data related to workers' health and occupational hazards

d) Conducting random drug tests on workers

None

6. What is the definition of a hazard in the context of occupational health?

a) A situation in the workplace with potential to cause harm

b) A workplace incident

c) A workplace accident

d) A risk of illness or injury

None

7. What is the definition of risk in occupational health?

a) The likelihood of a workplace hazard causing harm

b) A workplace hazard

c) The result of an accident

d) The presence of biological hazards in the workplace

None

8. What is the process of actively identifying all possible situations in the workplace where individuals may be exposed to risks of injury, disease, or death called?

a) Risk assessment

b) Hazard control

c) Hazard identification

d) Accident investigation

None

9. Which type of hazard is associated with machinery, equipment, or processes that can lead to injuries like crushing, cutting, or shearing?

a) Biological hazards

b) Mechanical hazards

c) Chemical hazards

d) Ergonomic hazards

None

10. Which type of hazard can lead to musculoskeletal disorders or physical strain due to poorly designed workstations or repetitive movements?

a) Physical hazards

b) Chemical hazards

c) Ergonomic hazards

d) Biological hazards

None

11. What can excessive work hours, monotonous work, and constant concentration requirements contribute to in terms of psychosocial hazards?

a) Hearing loss

b) Eye strain

c) Psychological stress

d) Musculoskeletal disorders

None

12. Which type of radiation exposure can lead to an increased risk of certain cancers and cataracts?

a) Ultraviolet radiation

b) Infrared radiation

c) Non-ionizing radiation

d) Ionizing radiation

None

13. Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV should be initiated within a period of ;

(a) 1-24 hours.

(b) 0-48 hours.

(d) 12-96 hours.

None

15. Natural disasters are boundless because they affect

(a) only developed countries.

(b) developing countries.

(d) all the under developed countries.

None

16. An incidence where a health worker slides on a wet floor but does not actually fall is termed as .................................?

17. Anything that presents a hazard in life is termed as ....................?

18. Encouraging open communication about safety concerns promotes ........................... culture.

19. The practice of designing equipment and tasks according to the workers ability is known as ...................?

20. A .............................. refers to a situation in the workshop that has the potential to cause harm, such as personal injury, disease, or even death.

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Community Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Community Week 1 Exam

June 18, 2025

Attempt all questions.

1. In which of the following orders, should a nurse attempt the process of community entry?

a) Learn, lie low, listen and look

b) Lie low, listen, look and learn

c) Listen, look, lie low and learn

d) Look, listen, lie low and learn

None

2. The type of prevention undertaken after treating a sick individual is called?

a) Disease prevention

b) Primary prevention

c) Secondary prevention

d) Tertiary prevention

None

3. Which of the following is an advantage of observation method used during community diagnoses?

a) Its time consuming

b) It gives an additional picture of the current picture

c) It causes bias

d) Information given is accurate

None

4. The formal process of going into the community following normal steps is?

a) Community mapping

b) Community capacity building

c) Community entry

d) Community mobilization

None

5. The best way to make community diagnoses is?

a) Carry out home visits

b) Attend village gatherings

c) Identify the audience

d) Talk to village leaders

None

6. Which of the following forms the structure of community-based health care?

a) Training community members

b) Leaders doing all the work

c) Community working together

d) Development committee

None

7. The major aim of health education activities is to;

a) Make a health plan for the community

b) Meet the needs of the community

c) Provide appropriate care to the community

d) Improve health of the community

None

8. The bottom-top approach which enables people become aware of their needs and problems and participation in activities is?

a) Community Health Care

b) Primary Health Care

c) Community Based Health Care

d) Personal and Community Health

None

9. Which of the following is the best group to identify and priorities community health problems

A. Health inspectors

B. Community residents

C. Health workers in the catchment area

D. Social workers

None

10. Which of the following is not relevant while choosing appropriate technology for a particular community?

A. Applicability

B. Environmental friendliness

C. Adaptability

D. Sophistication

None

11. Provision of adequate safe water to the community in primary health care is a

A. Pillar

B. Concept

C. Component

D. Strategy

None

12. Which of the following is an example collaboration in primary health care?

A. Team approach with other health workers

B. Support provide to run primary care by policy makers

C. Top bottom approach referral services

D. Linkage with other health related actors

None

13. When there is constant presence of a disease in a certain community, it is referred to as;

A. Endemic

B. Epidemic

C. Sporadic

D. Pandemic

None

14. Equity in primary health care means,

A. Treating people equally

B. Fair distribution of health care services

C. Equal distribution of funds

D. Keeping resources well

None

15. A nurse who assesses whether resource are maximized in the implementation of a primary health care program is evaluating the programs

A. Effectiveness

B. Efficiency

C. Impact

D. Outcome

None

16. In primary health care, material and child health services aim at,

A. Reducing material infant and childhood mortality and mobility

B. Immunizing infants and pre-school age children

C. Immunization of expectant mothers against tetanus

D. Giving prophylaxis against anemia and malaria.

None

17.Health care that meets the needs of the majority is said to be

a) Universal

b) Essential

c) Affordable

d) Accessible

None

18. Which of the following is not an indicator of community participation?

A. Community contributions

B. Utilization of local resources and services

C. Diversity of roles among community leaders

D. Soliciting for external support

None

19. Which of the following does NOT hinder mobilization of the community for various activities?

A. Insecurity

B. Corrupt leaders

C. Political interference

D. Decentralization

None

20. Which of the following is the initial step in home visiting?

A. Wash hands

B. Greet clients of household

C. Explains purpose of the visit

D. Ask about client health status

None

21. Which one of the following is NOT one of the main PHC themes that were considered and adopted at Alma Ata conference of 1978?

A. Multisectoral approach to health problems

B. Top bottom approach to health problems

C. Adoption and use of appropriate technology

D. Community participation in decision making

None

22. The role played by children in community health is,

A. Assisting health workers to give health education

B. Delivering instructions to their parents and family

C. Sharing what is in their homes with other children

D. Disseminating health messages to the community members

None

23. Which of the following stakeholders is a key focal person in implementation of community based health care programs?

A. Nurse

B. Health assistant

C. Village health team

D. Nursing assistant

None

24. The key approach to the primary disease prevention strategy is,

A. Aggressive intervention

B. Chemotherapy

C. Health education

D. Rehabilitation

None

25. Which of the following is NOT a role of nurse in community health?

A. Advocacy

B. Education

C. Provision of raw materials

D. Mentorship

None

26. A situation where a number of people in a given population develop a disease during a special period of time is termed as

A. Incidence

B. Prevalence

C. Sporadic

D. Pandemic

None

27. A Number of deaths under 1 year per 1000 registered live birth is

A. Neonatal mortality rate

B. Infant mortality rate

C. Perinatal mortality rate

D. Child mortality rate

None

28. Which of the following best defines the term epidemiology?

A. The study of frequency, distribution and determinants of health-related states.

B. The study of epidemics of infectious diseases in human population.

C. The study of diseases in Hospital.

D. The study of diseases and population trends in the community

None

29. The first step in community entry is;

A. Sensitization meeting

B. Preliminary study of the community

C. Identification of potential partners

D. None of the above

None

30. You know we cant forget to appreciate you for reaching this far, would some free marks work for you?

Yah, strike me with free marks

Nah, mama taught me to give free things to the needy

None

31. The process of assessing the achievement of PHC specific objectives is termed, ..............................?

32. The basic unit in the community that facilitates the promotion of individual health at household level is termed as ...........?

33. The focal person in CBHC is..................?

34. The principle of using minimum resources to achieve a given target is termed.......................?

35. The process of going into the community to obtain vital health information is called..................?

36. A pit latrine should be built.........................meters away from the water source.

37. When the Epidemiological Triad is constant in the community, the infectious disease becomes…………………………?

38. Community-Owned Resource Persons (CORPS) are selected and trained to assist the community in improving their health and facilitating ................................?

39. Think about how, eventually, all living things, like plants and animals, come to the end of their life. This natural process of living things coming to an end is called...........................?

40. Let's say 20 people get sick with a rare disease, and 4 of them don't survive. The ...................................... is 4 out of 20, which means 20% of the people who got sick with that disease passed away.

Name

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Community Week 1 Exam Read More »

Community Day 4 Quiz

Welcome to your Community Day 4 Quiz

June 18, 2025

Attempt All Questions

1. What is the primary focus of Community Based Health Care (CBHC)?

a) Hospital-based treatment

b) Community involvement in healthcare

c) Disease prevention only

d) Government funding

None

2. What is the relationship between CBHC and Primary Health Care (PHC)?

a) CBHC is unrelated to PHC

b) CBHC is part of PHC

c) PHC is a part of CBHC

d) CBHC replaces PHC

None

3. What drives the need for PHC and CBHC?

a) People's inability to manage their own health

b) Most illnesses being preventable

c) Overpopulation

d) The abundance of healthcare resources

None

4. How are Village Health Team (VHT) members selected?

a) Randomly

b) By the government

c) Through popular vote after community sensitization

d) By the community's healthcare provider

None

5. What do Community-Owned Resource Persons (CORPS) encompass?

a) Only community health workers

b) Only traditional birth attendants

c) A range of community resource persons including community health workers, traditional birth attendants, and more

d) Health policymakers

None

6. What is the primary purpose of Community Entry in community health activities?

a) To organize the community

b) To conduct a preliminary study

c) To get the community actively involved

d) To mobilize resources

None

7. What is the purpose of Community Situation Analysis in community health activities?

a) To conduct a preliminary study

b) To identify health issues and challenges within the community

c) To engage with community leaders

d) To organize the community

None

8. The formal process of going into the community following normal steps is?

a) Community mapping

b) Community capacity building

c) Community entry

d) Community mobilization

None

9. Which of the following forms the structure of community-based health care?

a) Training community members

b) Leaders doing all the work

c) Community working together

d) Development committee

None

10. The first step by the health workers to consider when planning any communication to a community is?

a) Develop objectives

b) Select channel of communication

c) Identify the audience

d) Prepare the message

None

11. Which of the following factors promotes community mobilization?

a) Appropriate language

b) Past bad experiences

c) Improved community relationship

d) Political interest

None

12. The bottom-top approach which enables people become aware of their needs and problems and participation in activities is?

a) Community Health Care

b) Primary Health Care

c) Community Based Health Care

d) Personal and Community Health

None

13. The major aim of health education activities is to;

a) Make a health plan for the community

b) Meet the needs of the community

c) Provide appropriate care to the community

d) Improve health of the community

None

14. The community health workers can treat diseases like;

a) HIV/AIDS

b) Malaria and HIV/AIDS

c) Malaria

d) Diabetes mellitus

None

15. Which of the following should a nurse do in order to encourage community participation?

a). Invite people from civil organization

b) . Refer to doctors for prescription

c) . Encourage sponsorship to the programmers

d) . Listen when people narrate their problems

None

16. The study which aims at obtaining information on specific topic within a population/ organization is, ..................................?

17. The processing of bringing people together with a desired purpose to plan, organize and participate in community activities is termed as, ......................................?

18. The category of drugs designed for certain levels of health facilities in the community to treat common health conditions are known as……………………………?

19. The process that involves identifying and recognizing the most significant and prevalent diseases, health problems, or needs within a specific area is called ................................?

20. Which year was the ALMA ATTA declaration signed?

Name

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Community Day 4 Quiz Read More »

Community Day 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Community Day 3 Quiz

June 18, 2025

Attempt All Questions.

1. The concept of PHC services where everybody should be able to pay for, is termed as;

a) Accessibility

b) Acceptability

c) Equity

d) Affordability

None

2. Which of the following is the bottom-up approach in the health care system

a) CBHC

b) Community participation

c) PHC

d) Community mobilization

None

3. The type of prevention undertaken after treating a sick individual is called?

a) Disease prevention

b) Primary prevention

c) Secondary prevention

d) Tertiary prevention

None

4. Genetic traits related to certain enzyme deficiencies and hereditary diseases can lead to changes in individuals' health status. These traits fall under which determinant of health?

a) Biology and Genetics

b) Lifestyle Choices

c) Level of Development (Socioeconomic)

d) Environment

None

5. Which type of health indicators focus on the actions, behaviors, and attitudes of individuals and communities regarding healthcare?

a) Vital Indicators

b) Mortality Indicators

c) Behavioral Health Indicators

d) Growth Rates

None

6. What component of health involves awareness and acceptance of one's feelings, including feeling positive and enthusiastic about oneself and life?

a) Physical Health

b) Mental Well-being

c) Spiritual Dimension

d) Emotional Dimension

None

7. What is the primary purpose of a case definition of a disease?

a) Identifying the symptoms of a disease

b) Classifying cases of a disease

c) Communicating the disease to the public

d) Designing vaccines for the disease

None

8. In the natural history of disease, which stage involves individuals who have been exposed to risk factors but have not yet shown any symptoms?

a) Stage of Susceptibility/Preclinical Phase

b) Stage of Clinical Disease/Symptomatic Phase

c) Stage of Subclinical Disease/Asymptomatic Phase

d) Stage of Recovery, Disability, or Death

None

9. What are non-communicable diseases primarily caused by?

a) Bacteria and viruses

b) Pathogens in the environment

c) Lifestyle, genetics, and environmental factors

d) Poor sanitation

None

10. What is the primary goal of primary (1°) prevention in controlling disease?

a) Early diagnosis and treatment

b) Reducing the impact of disease

c) Preventing the development of disease

d) Rehabilitating individuals with disease

None

11. What is the term for the threatened or intentional release of biological agents for the purpose of influencing the conduct of government or intimidating a civilian population?

a) Quarantine

b) Bioterrorism

c) Endemic disease

d) Pandemic

None

12. What is the primary purpose of a case definition of a disease?

a) Diagnosing diseases in the early stages

b) Identifying possible sources of infection

c) Providing standardized criteria for identifying and classifying cases of a specific disease

d) Controlling disease vectors and reservoirs

None

13. Which of the following is classified as a physical agent in disease etiology?

a) Bacteria

b) Allergens

c) Extreme heat

d) Urea

None

14. What are the three elements that determine the etiology of health problems in a population?

a) The hospital, doctors, and medications

b) Agent, Host, and Environment

c) Virus, bacteria, and parasites

d) Genetic factors, lifestyle choices, and socioeconomic status

None

15. What is the primary aim of disease surveillance in public health?

a) To identify the most common diseases in the population

b) To evaluate progress toward controlling infectious diseases

c) To provide free medical treatment to those affected

d) To assess dietary habits and nutrition in the community

None

16. The ability for the body to fight disease or infection is termed as..........?

17. A group of people who have a feeling of belonging, share norms is called.............?

18. The process of assessing the achievement of PHC specific objectives is termed..........?

19. The process by which community problems, needs, resources, health services, and structures are identified is................?

20. A ..................... is an epidemic that breaks out across many continents, occurring across the world.

Name

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Community Day 3 Quiz Read More »

Community Health Day 1 and Day 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Community Health Day 1 and Day 2 Quiz

June 18, 2025

Attempt All Questions.

1. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of PHC?

A. Selective approach to primary health care

B. Intersectoral collaboration

C. Community participation

D. Universal access to health

None

2. Health for all by the year 2000, meant;

A. There would be no disease by the year 2000

B. Prevention disease would be controlled among other problems and availability of basic care

C. Hospital care would be necessary

D. The community members should not have any disease by 2000

None

3. What is the primary goal of Universal Health Coverage (UHC)?

A. Providing healthcare services to only a select few

B. Making individuals and communities pay for healthcare

C. Ensuring all individuals and communities receive needed health services without financial hardships

D. Offering super-specialist care for complex medical conditions

None

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 global health targets?

A. Health equity

B. Survival

C. Eradicate diseases

D. Urbanization control

None

5. Which concept of Primary Health Care (PHC) emphasizes providing healthcare services that meet the most crucial needs of the majority in a community?

A. Scientifically sound methods and technology

B. Accessibility of health care

C. Essential health care

D. Self-reliance

None

6. Which type of care in PHC involves providing basic treatment for common illnesses and minor injuries at the community level?

A. Preventive care

B. Promotive care

C. Curative care

D. Rehabilitative care

None

7. What was the ultimate goal of the Comprehensive Model of PHC?

A. Treating individual diseases effectively

B. Achieving Health For All (HFA)

C. Providing super-specialist care

D. Controlling specific diseases

None

8. A principal of primary health care that allows equal sharing of health services in the community is called

A. Accessibility

B. Equality

C. Being considerate

D. Equity

None

9. Provision of adequate safe water to the community in primary health care is a

A. Pillar

B. Concept

C. Component

D. Strategy

None

10. When there is constant presence of a disease in a certain community, it is referred to as;

A. Endemic

B. Epidemic

C. Sporadic

D. Pandemic

None

11. A nurse who assesses whether resource are maximized in the implementation of a primary health care program is evaluating the programs

A. Effectiveness

B. Efficiency

C. Impact

D. Outcome

None

12. Member of Parliament of a certain constituency who advocates for implementation of PHC project is said to be acting on PHC pillar called

A. Intersectoral collaboration

B. Political commitment

C. Top-bottom approach

D. All inclusive

None

13. A Number of deaths under 1 year per 1000 registered live birth is

A. Neonatal mortality rate

B. Infant mortality rate

C. Perinatal mortality rate

D. Child mortality rate

None

14. The Chain of infection involves;

A. Virus, human being, disease, reservoir.

B. Infectious agent, reservoir, mode of transmission, portals of entry

C. Mode of transmission, susceptible host, infectious agent

D. Infectious agent, reservoir, portals of entry, mode of transmission, susceptible host

None

15. Which of the following best defines the term epidemiology?

A. The study of frequency, distribution and determinants of health-related states.

B. The study of epidemics of infectious diseases in human population.

C. The study of diseases in Hospital.

D. The study of diseases and population trends in the community

None

16. The occurrence of a disease worldwide is called………………………………………………..?

17. The use of local available materials to solve community problems explain a pillar of PHC of……………………………………………?

18. .............................is a term that is used when they separate and restrict the movement of well persons who may have been exposed to a communicable disease.

19. The first step in Planning for PHC Activities is;

20. In purposes of evaluation, ...................................... is the extent to which you have achieved your goals and objectives.

Name

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Community Health Day 1 and Day 2 Quiz Read More »