Quizzes & Surveys - Page 11 of 11

Teaching Methodology Day 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 2 Quiz

Good Luck

1. What is the focus of the principle of individual difference?

a) Treating all students the same way

b) Respecting each student's uniqueness

c) Grouping students by age

d) Implementing standardized testing

None

2. According to the principle of selection, what should teachers base their choice of content, teaching methods, and aids on?

a) Personal preferences

b) The teacher's expertise

c) The level and needs of learners

d) Availability of resources

None

3. Which philosophy of education emphasizes that ideas are the only true reality worth knowing?

a) Idealism

b) Realism

c) Naturalism

d) Pragmatism

None

4. What is the focus of pragmatism in education?

a) Emphasizing theoretical knowledge

b) Encouraging passive learning

c) Practical consequences and observable change

d) Theoretical and philosophical debates

None

5. Who is known for the theory of classical conditioning in behaviorism?

a) Ivan Pavlov

b) B.F. Skinner

c) Edward Thorndike

d) John B. Watson

None

6. In behaviorism, what is the term for the process of strengthening a behavior through rewards or punishments?

a) Assimilation

b) Accommodation

c) Conditioning

d) Reinforcement

None

7. What is the main focus of operant conditioning in behaviorism?

a) Associations between stimuli

b) Logical reasoning

c) Rewards and punishments for behavior

d) Observational learning

None

8. Which type of reinforcement involves the presentation of something favorable after a behavior?

a) Positive reinforcement

b) Negative reinforcement

c) Positive punishment

d) Negative punishment

None

9. In constructivism, what does assimilation refer to?

a) Changing existing knowledge structures

b) Incorporating new information into existing knowledge

c) Learning through observation

d) Behavioral conditioning

None

10. Which of the following is NOT a principle of teaching and learning?

A. Principle of motivation

B. Principle of activity

C. Principle of individual difference

D. Principle of standardization

None

11. The principles of teaching and learning are designed to help teachers achieve the purpose of teaching.

True

False

None

12. The principle of motivation states that the best teacher is one who inspires and praises students.

True

False

None

13. The principle of activity states that teaching should focus on having students be passive.

True

False

None

14. The principle of individual difference states that teaching should be the same for all students.

True

False

None

15. The principle of selection states that teachers should select appropriate content, teaching methods, and aids based on the level and needs of learners

True

False

None

16. What maxim emphasizes organizing lesson content by starting with simpler ideas before moving to complex ones?

17. Which philosophy of education asserts that ideas and the mind are the ultimate reality?

18. Who is known for discovering classical conditioning?

19. According to constructivism, what is the process of fitting new information into existing knowledge structures called?

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RESEARCH WEEK ONE TEST

Welcome to your RESEARCH WEEK ONE TEST Which has 30 MCQ'S and 10 FILL-IN's

RESEARCH METHODOLODY

PAPER CODE: DNE/DME 121

TIME ALLOWED : 1:30 hrs

Attempt All Numbers.

What does the term "phenomena" refer to in the context of research?

a. Logical explanations for observed events

b. Events or situations observed to exist but not easily explained

c. The scientific investigation of data

d. Personal opinions and attitudes

None

Which term implies that research follows laid-out procedures and is developed in a coherent manner?

a. Scientific investigation

b. Objective

c. Systematic

d. Phenomenology

None

What does "Objective" mean in the context of research?

a. Personal opinions and attitudes influencing research findings

b. Research findings are reported as they are, without interpretation

c. The use of the scientific method in research

d. Gathering data without a specific objective

None

What is the primary purpose of an abstract in a research article?

a. To provide detailed research findings

b. To present the methodology used in the study

c. To inform readers of key findings in a concise manner

d. To list all the references used in the research

None

What term refers to the process of selecting a representative part of a population for research purposes?

a. Sampling

b. Cohort

c. Data collection

d. Hypothesis testing

None

What does the term "bias" mean in research?

a. The selection of subjects from a population using random procedures

b. Undesired actions or effects of a drug or treatment

c. When a point of view prevents impartial judgment on research-related issues

d. The extent to which an instrument measures what it intends to measure

None

What is the purpose of a pilot study in research?

a. To present preliminary research findings

b. To test the usefulness of research instruments

c. To conduct a full-scale research study

d. To refine the methodology and test research elements for feasibility

None

What characteristic of research involves conducting a study with a well-defined and focused purpose?

a. Specific/purposiveness

b. Empirical

c. Testability

d. Objectivity

None

Which characteristic of research refers to its ability to be repeated in similar circumstances to support the results obtained?

a. Testability

b. Objectivity

c. Precision

d. Replicability

None

Which type of research aims to find solutions to practical problems, such as improving agricultural crop production or curing specific diseases?

a. Basic research

b. Experimental research

c. Descriptive research

d. Applied research

None

What is the primary motivation behind basic research?

a. To expand man's knowledge

b. To create or invent something new

c. To find commercial value in discoveries

d. To answer practical questions

None

Which type of research seeks to establish relationships or correlations between two or more variables without necessarily determining causality?

a. Experimental research

b. Correlational research

c. Narrative research

d. Ethnographic research

None

What type of research is concerned with investigating phenomena that are difficult or impossible to quantify mathematically, such as beliefs, meanings, attributes, and symbols?

a. Descriptive research

b. Quantitative research

c. Experimental research

d. Qualitative research

None

What type of research is more concerned with questions about "How much," "How many," "How often," and "To what extent"?

a. Qualitative research

b. Descriptive research

c. Experimental research

d. Quantitative research

None

Why is research considered a science?

a. Because it is based on personal opinions and bias

b. Due to its lack of systematic approach

c. Because it follows a systematic and structured approach, similar to the scientific method

d. Because it relies solely on subjective data

None

What is the role of an independent variable (IV) in research?

a. It is the outcome or response that is measured or observed.

b. It is expected to change as a result of variations in the dependent variable.

c. It is manipulated or controlled to determine its effect on the dependent variable.

d. It represents confounding variables in the study.

None

What is the purpose of confounding variables(Extraneous & Intervening) in research?

a. To manipulate the independent variable

b. To control extraneous variables

c. To influence the dependent variable

d. To confuse the relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable

None

What is a research problem?

a. A statement about the research topic

b. An area of concern or a gap in knowledge

c. A statement of the research hypothesis

d. A summary of the research findings

None

What are the qualities of a good research problem according to the FINER acronym?

a. Feasible, Incomplete, New, Ethical, Relevant

b. Factual, Interesting, Novel, Ethical, Relevant

c. Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical, Relevant

d. Flexible, Investigative, Navigational, Experimental, Relevant

None

What is the purpose of the "A" (Attainable) in SMART research objectives?

a. To emphasize the importance of the research

b. To make the objective more interesting

c. To ensure that the objective is achievable with available resources

d. To specify a timeframe for the objective

None

Which type of research objective provides a big-picture view of what the research intends to accomplish?

a. Specific objectives

b. General objectives

c. Measurable objectives

d. Time-bound objectives

None

In a research proposal, what is the purpose of the "Declaration" page?

a. To list the acronyms used in the proposal

b. To provide a table of contents for the proposal

c. To declare the approval of the research by the principal investigator

d. To declare that the researcher acknowledges the work as their own

None

In a research proposal, which section typically includes pages numbered in Roman numerals?

a. Preliminary Pages

b. Main Body

c. References

d. Appendices

None

The main body of a research proposal contains the following EXCEPT;

a. Chapter Two

b. Chapter One

c. Chapter Four

d. Chapter Three

None

What is the purpose of specific objectives in research?

a. To outline the research methodology

b. To specify the research hypothesis

c. To provide a detailed plan for data analysis

d. To break down the general objective into smaller, manageable parts

None

What type of variable is socioeconomic status in the study "Influence of socioeconomic status on housing conditions"?

a. Independent Variable (IV)

b. Dependent Variable (DV)

c. Intervening Variable

d. Extraneous Variable (EV)

None

What is the dependent variable (DV) in a research study?

a. It is the factor or condition that researchers manipulate.

b. It is the outcome or response that is measured or observed.

c. It represents potential confounding variables.

d. It is a variable used for moderating the relationship between IV and DV.

None

What type of research is more concerned with questions about "How much," "How many," "How often," and "To what extent"?

a. Qualitative research

b. Descriptive research

c. Experimental research

d. Quantitative research

None

What does descriptive research primarily focus on?

a. Predicting future outcomes

b. Experimenting with variables

c. Providing an accurate portrayal of characteristics

d. Developing innovative technologies

None

Phew, you are on number 30, breath-in, Out, Huh

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None

Phenomenology falls under the category of ____________ research.

The --------- effect is a phenomenon (In Phenomenology research) where a person experiences real improvements in their condition after receiving a treatment that has no therapeutic effect.

A hypothesis is a specific and testable statement made for a particular experiment, while a ____________ is a comprehensive explanation of natural phenomena supported by substantial evidence.

____________ refers to an individual or source of information who provides valuable data or knowledge to the researcher.

Research is based on observation and measurement of phenomena as directly experienced or observed by the researcher or based on real life experiences, makes research ____________.

____________ research aims to describe an experience as it was actually lived by the person, focusing on the individual's perspective.

The type of data is collected in quantitative research is ----------- data?

A research proposal is written in the __________ tense because it describes what the researcher intends to undertake in the future.

The first preliminary page of a research proposal is a ---------- page.

The "Approval" page in a research proposal is signed by both the supervisor and the __________.

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Research Quiz Day 3 and Day 4

Welcome to your Research Quiz Day 3 and Day 4

12 Questions.

10 MCQ's

2 Fill Ins

Which of the following is a purpose of research objectives?

a) To gather as much data as possible

b) To avoid wasting resources

c) To keep the study broad and vague

d) To confuse the researcher

None

Which characteristic is NOT part of a good research objective?

a) Specificity

b) Measurability

c) Complexity

d) Time-bound

None

What is the purpose of specific objectives in research?

a) To provide a broad overview of the study

b) To break down the general objective into manageable parts

c) To confuse the researcher

d) To collect as much data as possible

None

Which of the following is NOT an action verb commonly used in research objectives?

a) To compare

b) To appreciate

c) To describe

d) To establish

None

What does the acronym SMART stand for in the context of research objectives?

a) Simple, Measurable, Achievable, Rated, Timely

b) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-Bound

c) Specific, Meaningful, Appropriate, Realistic, Timely

d) Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Targeted

None

Which type of objective provides a big-picture view of what the research intends to accomplish?

a) Specific objectives

b) General objectives

c) Non-action objectives

d) Complex objectives

None

What is the main advantage of having clear research objectives?

a) They make the study more complicated

b) They confuse the researcher

c) They help in staying focused on the research goal

d) They lead to unnecessary data collection

None

Which term is NOT associated with a well-formulated research objective?

a) Aim

b) Purpose

c) Hypothesis

d) Goal

None

What is the primary purpose of a research proposal?

a) To summarize existing research

b) To describe completed research

c) To outline future research intentions

d) To provide a literature review

None

What is the main purpose of studying research as an educational requirement?

a) To discourage students from pursuing research

b) To provide a summary of research findings

c) To prepare students for the research process

d) To avoid the need for ethical considerations

None

A research proposal outlines what the researcher intends to investigate, why it's important, and how the research will be done. It is typically written in the _______ tense.

What are the preliminary pages of a research proposal typically numbered in?

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Research Day 1

Welcome to your Research Day 1

At the end of the quiz, enter your correct email to receive your results and corrections.

What does the term "REsearch" imply in the context of the discussion?

a) Repeating the same actions multiple times

b) Redefining existing concepts

c) Regurgitating previously known information

d) Retrieving data randomly

None

What is the primary purpose of research, as defined in the discussion?

a) To validate preconceived notions

b) To conduct experiments without a specific goal

c) To fill a knowledge gap or address a question

d) To generate random data for academic purposes

None

Which of the following best describes the "gap" in research?

a) A physical distance between researchers and subjects

b) The difference between current and ideal situations

c) An empty space in research documents

d) A measurement error in data collection

None

What is a "phenomenon" in the context of research?

a) A proven scientific theory

b) An observable event or situation that cannot be easily explained

c) A common misconception

d) A term used in qualitative research

None

Which term describes the degree of consistency or accuracy in measuring attributes with an instrument?

a) Validity

b) Reliability

c) Hypothesis

d) Phenomenology

None

What does the term "blind" mean in clinical trials?

a) Participants are unaware of which trial arm they are in

b) Participants are provided with extra information about the trial

c) Researchers do not analyze the trial data

d) Participants are not allowed to participate in the trial

None

What characteristic of research ensures that the research has a clear and focused purpose?

a) Empirical

b) Specific/Purposiveness

c) Objectivity

d) Testability

None

Which type of research aims to describe an experience as it is actually lived by an individual?

a) Correlational research

b) Experimental research

c) Phenomenological research

d) Descriptive research

None

What type of data does quantitative research primarily deal with?

a) Non-numerical data

b) Qualitative data

c) Numerical data

d) Observational data

None

Why is research often regarded as a science?

a) Because it always involves laboratory experiments

b) Because it follows a systematic and structured approach

c) Because it relies solely on subjective opinions

d) Because it doesn't require empirical evidence

None

A ____________ is an observable event or situation that cannot be easily explained in logical terms.

____________ is the degree of consistency or accuracy in measuring attributes with an instrument.

The term "blind" in clinical trials refers to participants being unaware of which trial arm they are in, helping to control ____________.

____________ research is driven by a scientist's curiosity or interest in a scientific question and seeks to expand knowledge.

In ____________ research, researchers rely on open-ended interviews, observations, and non-nemerical type of data, to explore and understand phenomena.

Experimental research involves the manipulation of the _____________ variable to examine causality.

In probability sampling, every member of the population has an _____________ chance of being selected.

The process of systematically collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data to answer a research question or solve a problem is called _____________.

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Disaster Introduction Quiz

Welcome to your Disaster Introduction Quiz

Only MCQ Questions. To get a copy of results sent to your email, please fill in the details after the quiz! Good Luck.

What is the primary focus of disaster epidemiology?

a) Study of patterns of disease occurrence in human populations.

b) Investigation of disaster response organizations.

c) Analysis of economic impacts of disasters.

d) Examination of environmental degradation.

None

Which term refers to the lack of capacity to deal with potential threats, stemming from various factors?

a) Residual risk

b) Capacity building

c) Vulnerability

d) Intensity

None

What is the main characteristic of a catastrophe?

a) Limited impact on communities

b) Minor disruption of lifeline services

c) Large scope of impact and severe damage

d) Gradual and slow onset

None

Which type of vulnerability is related to inadequate protection of assets?

a) Physical Vulnerability

b) Social Vulnerability

c) Economic Vulnerability

d) Environmental Vulnerability

None

What is the term used for sorting out disaster victims based on the extent of severity?

a) Intensity

b) Scope

c) Controllability

d) Triage

None

What is the likelihood of specific hazard occurrence and its probable consequence called?

a) Acceptable risk

b) Residual risk

c) Disaster risk

d) Catastrophic risk

None

What phase of a disaster occurs when a disaster actually happens and individuals try to survive?

a) Pre-impact Phase

b) Impact Phase

c) Post Impact Phase

d) Catastrophic Phase

None

Which stage of emotional response involves victims denying the magnitude of the problem?

a) Strong Emotional Response

b) Acceptance stage

c) Recovery stage

d) Denial stage

None

What type of vulnerability is determined by economic status and resources available?

a) Economic Vulnerability

b) Physical Vulnerability

c) Social Vulnerability

d) Environmental Vulnerability

None

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Palliative Care Quiz

Welcome to your Palliative Care Quiz

Remember to put your email at the end to receive your results!

What is the primary goal of palliative care?

a) To cure the underlying illness

b) To provide comfort and improve the quality of life for patients and families

c) To promote alternative treatments

d) To hasten the end of life

None

Which of the following is not an attribute of palliative care?

a) Holistic approach

b) Pain and symptom management

c) Cure-focused treatment

d) Communication and coordination

None

What is the main difference between hospice care and palliative care?

a) Hospice care is for cancer patients only, while palliative care is for all illnesses.

b) Hospice care is provided in a dedicated facility, while palliative care can be provided in various settings.

c) Hospice care focuses on cure-based treatments, while palliative care emphasizes comfort and quality of life.

d) Hospice care is available only during the terminal phase of an illness, while palliative care can be initiated at any stage.

None

What is the major aim of hospice care?

a) To provide curative treatments for patients with life-limiting diseases

b) To offer emotional support for patients and their families

c) To improve the quality of life and provide compassionate care for patients and families facing life-limiting illnesses

d) To perform medical research and advance treatments for life-limiting diseases

None

Which of the following is not an essential component of holistic care in palliative care?

a) Physical care

b) Emotional care

c) Financial support

d) Spiritual care

None

What is the purpose of community-based palliative care?

a) To provide palliative care only in hospitals

b) To extend palliative care services to the community

c) To focus on pain and symptom management only

d) To offer care exclusively to cancer patients

None

What is the main advantage of home-based palliative care?

a) It provides specialized medical treatments at home.

b) It is exclusively focused on physical symptom relief.

c) It enables comprehensive care for patients and their families at home.

d) It is only suitable for patients with terminal illnesses.

None

What is the major difference between facility day care and community day care models of palliative care?

a) Facility day care is provided within the facility, while community day care is offered in a community.

b) Facility day care allows patients to interact with other patients, while community day care does not involve socialization.

c) Facility day care provides only medical treatments, while community day care focuses on emotional support.

d) Facility day care is provided at the patient's home, while community day care is delivered in a healthcare facility.

None

Which of the following is not an attribute of palliative care?

a) Continuity of care

b) Interdisciplinary care team

c) Curative treatment-focused

d) Dignity and respect

None

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Pharmacology & Mental

Welcome to your Pharmacology & Mental

This Pharmacology & Mental quiz is marked out of 100%,

Make sure to input your RIGHT EMAIL because you will receive your RESULTS and ANSWERS to the email you input at the end of this Pharmacology & Mental quiz.

1. Which of the following controls the release of gonadotrophins?

Corpus Luteum

Anterior Pituitary

Posterior Pituitary

Hypothalamus

None

2. Which of the following is not a gonad tropic substance?

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

Leydig Hormone

Luteinizing Hormone

HCG

None

3. The following are used in the treatment of infertility except?

Clomiphene

HCG

Finasteride

Metformin

None

4. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication of follicle stimulating hormone?

Pregnancy

Anovulation

Streptomycin users

Pituitary disorders

None

5. Which of the following drugs is NOT an ANABOLIC STEROID?

Testosterone

Nandrolone

Stanozolol

Oxandrolone

None

6. Which of the following is the drug choice for erectile dysfunction?

Finasteride

Sildenafil

Nandrolone

Papaverine

None

7. Which of the following is a uterine relaxant?

Oxytocin

Salbutamol

Dinoprostone

Misoprostone

None

8. What is the most dangerous adverse effect of ergometrine?

Mood change

Nausea

Hypertension

Dizziness

None

9. Which of the following is a common side effect of anticancer drugs?

Gynecomastia

Loss of memory

Obesity

Alopecia

None

10. Which of the following drugs would a nurse keep under lock and key?

Pethedine

Ephedrine

Caffeine

Misoprostol

None

11. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder common among children?

Mania

Mental retardation

Post traumatic stress disorder

Attention deficit hyperactive disorder

None

12. Which of the following is the first stage of aggressions and violence?

Shouting

Restlessness

Punching objects

Emotional heightening

None

13. Which of the following is the most likely disorder after rape and defilement?

PTSD

Aggression

Delirium

Confusion

None

14. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of delirium?

Genetics

Epilepsy

Nutritional deficiencies

Cerebral infection

None

15. JADIL is 12years old and his mother has to take care of him as though he is a 6 year old. What is his 1.Q

50%

200

200%

None

16. A disorder characterized by violation of rules of society and abuse of others rights

Frequent lying disorder

Juvenile stealing

Conduct disorder

Personality disorder

None

17. Patients with substance abuse would benefit from?

Simple concrete tasks

Group activities

Occupational tasks

Weekly day out

None

18. A childhood disorder characterized by lack of social smile not even to the mother is called?

Autism

Rett’s disease

Conduct disorder

Antisocial disorder

None

19. The commonest form of epileptic seizures is

Partial seizures

Generalized seizures

Temporal lobe seizures

Status epilepticus

None

The psychiatric emergency which presents with sudden outbursts of collapse and fear of doom is.

Hysteria

Suicidal attempts

Obsessive compulsive disorder

Panic attack

None

20. The cells responsible for production of testosterone are known as?

21. The adverse effect of testosterone that results into production of breast milk among men is referred to as?

22. The major GIT side effect of morphine is

23. The main effect of opioids use that make them to be highly controlled drugs

24. A chemical substance that stops effects of a poison is referred as?

25. Which drug is given in patients with Wernicke's encephalopathy in chronic alcoholism?

26. What drug is given to counteract opioids poisoning?

27. Which drug is used to counteract warfarin poisoning?

28. Which drug is used to reduce paracetamol toxicity?

29. What type of immunity is acquired when hepatitis B vaccine is administered?

30. The commonest psychiatric emergencies associated with depressive illness is known as?

31. Failure of a mental patient to recognize that he has a mental illness is referred to as?

32. The term used to describe verbal expression of readiness to cause attack with threats is termed as?

33. Which term is given to irrational fear?

34. A psychiatric emergency where the patient is inert and mute but appears conscious is?

35. A child disorder associated with excessive anxiety when the child is taken away from the individual he is attached to is referred to as?

Hint

36. Children who cannot settle in one place at any given time are likely to be suffering from

Hint

37. What is the drug of choice in management of status epilepticus?

38. The type of epilepsy that does not involve falling down but leads to aggressive behaviour is?

39. Physiological symptoms which occur after stopping excessive alcohol consumption are collectively referred to as

Hint

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Medical Nursing Eye Objectives

Welcome to your Medical Nursing Eye Objectives

Click Next to proceed, and your timer starts as soon as you click the button!

Make sure you enter your right email because we shall send you a copy of the questions and answers.

Are 50 Objectives, and each question carries 2 marks.

Good Luck

Distichiasis is:

Accessory row of eyelashes

Downward drooping of upper lid

Outward protrusion of lower lid

Misdirected eyelashes

None

Band shaped keratopathy is commonly caused by deposition of:

Magnesium salt

Calcium salt

Ferrous salt

Copper salt

None

Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is:

Corticosteroids

Cycloplegics

Antibiotics

Antifungals

None

Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as:

Adherent Leucoma

Dense leucoma

Ciliary staphyloma

Iris bombe

None

Corneal sensations are diminished in:

Herpes simplex

Conjunctivitis

Fungal infections

Marginal keratitis

None

The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:

Yellow

Blue

Green

Red

None

Phlycten is due to:

Endogenous allergy

Exogenous allergy

Degeneration

None of the above

None

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat topped cobble stone papillae raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:

Trachoma

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

None

Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium?

Streptococcal pyogenes

Staphylococcal aureus

Pseudomonas pyrogens

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

None

A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is:

Posterior subcapsular cataract

Retinopathy of prematurity

Optic neuritis

Vitreous hemorrhage

None

A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The most probable diagnosis is:

Trachoma

Staphylococcal conjunctivitis

Adenoviral conjunctivitis

Phlyctenule conjunctivitis

None

Patching of the eye is contraindicated in:

Corneal abrasion

Bacterial corneal ulcer

Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

After glaucoma surgery

None

Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He most probably suffers from:

Trachoma

Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

Bulbar spring catarrh

Purulent conjunctivitis

None

In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctivitis characteristically there is usually:

Copious purulent discharge

Copious muco-purulent discharge

Excessive watery lacrimation

Mucoid ropy white discharge

None

Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in:

Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

Phlyctenule keratoconjunctivitis

Active trachoma

Spring catarrh

None

A patient complains of maceration of skin of the lids and conjunctiva redness at the inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival swab is expected to show:

Staphylococcus aureus.

Streptococcus viridans.

Streptococcus pneumonie

Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli

None

Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of:

Active trachoma

Bulbar spring catarrh

Corneal phlycten

Vitamin A deficiency

None

A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to:

Bulbar spring catarrh.

Episcleritis.

Vascular pterygium.

Phlyctenule conjunctivitis.

None

In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is:

Arlt's line

Herbert's pits

Post-trachomatous concretions.

Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.

None

A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with negative fluorescein test. The expected diagnosis can be:

Acute anterior uveitis.

Giant papillary conjunctivitis.

Bacterial corneal ulcer.

Acute congestive glaucoma

None

Fifth nerve palsy could cause:

Ptosis

Proptosis

Neuropathic keratopathy

Lagophthalmos

None

Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of:

Secondary glaucoma

Cortical cataract.

Corneal perforation

Secondary viral infection

None

The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is

Ciliary injection

Blepharospasm

Miosis

Positive fluorescein test

None

The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is:

Surface anesthesia

Local corticosteroids

Systemic corticosteroids

Acyclovir ointment

None

Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by:

Presence of pus in the anterior chamber

No tendency to recurrence

Corneal hypoesthesia

Tendency to perforate

None

Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium:

Neisseria gonorrhea.

Staphylococcal epidermidis

Moraxella lacunata.

Staphylococcal aureus

None

Advanced keratoconus is least to be corrected when treated by

Hard contact Lens

Rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lens

Spectacles

Keratoplasty

None

Organisms causing angular conjunctivitis are:

Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli

Pneumococci

Gonococci

Adenovirus

None

Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of

Meibomian gland

Zeiss's gland

Sweat gland

Wolf ring's gland

None

Deep leucoma is best treated by

Tattooing

Lamellar keratoplasty

Keratectomy

Penetrating keratoplasty

None

Blood vessels in a trachomatous pannus lie:

Beneath the Descemet's membrane.

In the substantia propria.

Between Bowman's membrane & substantia propria.

Between Bowman's membrane & Epithelium

None

In vernal catarrh, the characteristic cells are:

Macrophage

Eosinophils

Neutrophils

Epithelioid cells

None

Ptosis in Horner's syndrome, is due to paralysis of:

Riolan's muscle

Horner's muscle

Muller's muscle

The levator palpebral muscle

Orbicularis oculi muscle

None

Severe congenital ptosis with no levator function can be treated by:

Levator resection from skin side

Levator resection from conjunctival side

Fascia lata sling operation

Fasanella servat operation

None

The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

Moraxella

Gonococcus

Pneumococcus

Staphylococcus

None

Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is:

Corticosteroid

Atropine

Antibiotics

Antifungal

None

Fleischer ring is found in:

Keratoconus

Chalcosis

Argyrosis

Buphthalmias

None

Intercalary staphyloma is a type of:

Equatorial staphyloma

Posterior staphyloma

Scleral staphyloma

Anterior staphyloma

None

Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers derived from:

Trochlear nerve

Optic nerve

Trigeminal nerve

Oculomotor nerve

None

Ciliary injection is not seen in:

Herpetic keratitis

Bacterial ulcer

Chronic iridocyclitis

Catarrhal conjunctivitis

None

Most of the thickness of cornea is formed by:

Epithelial layer

Substantia propria

Descemet's membrane

Endothelium

None

A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology?

Anterior uveitis

Conjunctivitis

Fungal corneal ulcer

Corneal laceration

None

Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in:

Facial palsy

Peripheral neuritis

Oculomotor palsy

Sympathetic palsy

None

Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is:

Glaucoma

Retinal detachment

Iridocyclitis

High myopia

None

Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:

Dry eye

Infective keratitis

Watering eyes

Horner’s syndrome

None

All of the following are part of uvea except:

Pars plicata

Pars plana

Choroid

Schwalbe’s line

None

Photolytic glaucoma is best treated by:

Fistulizing operation

Cataract extraction

Cyclo-destructive procedure

Miotics and Beta blockers

None

Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in:

Intumescent cataract.

Anterior lens dislocation,

Posterior subcapsular cataract

Posterior lens dislocation

None

Best site where intraocular lens is fitted:

Capsular ligament

Endosulcus

Ciliary supported

Capsular bag

None

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During colostomy irrigation, too cold solution results into ----------- of the patient.

The patient fasts for at least ------------before an operation to minimize risks that may set in due to anesthesia.

Deselect Answer

None

Chylothorax refers to accumulation of -------- in the pleural cavity/space.

Deselect Answer

lymph fluid

pleural fluid

chylo fluid

all the above

None

The patient should be placed in a ------------ position during gastric lavage.

Deselect Answer

lithotomy

left decubitus/semi-fowlers

sitting up

semi prone

None

Soiled tapes are changed every----------- to prevent accidental lodgment.

Deselect Answer

6 hours

12 hours

24 hours

8 hours

None

A stoma refers to --------------.

Deselect Answer

a colostomy

an artificial opening

a stomach

a hole

None

The most common complication arising from a tracheostomy is ----------------.

Deselect Answer

accidental injury

infection

subcutaneous emphysema

obstruction by inspirited secretions

None

One is required to do ---------------- while preparing for tracheostomy if an urgent situation is encountered.

Deselect Answer

cricoparathyroidotomy

parathyroidotomy

cricothyroidotomy

thyroidotomy

None

The difference between an allergic skin reaction and mild skin irritation is ---------------------------------.

Deselect Answer

is an allergic reaction is usually more painful especially on touch

an allergic reaction is usually less painful especially on touch

is an allergic reaction is usually painless especially on touch

both are the same

None

When a section of the bowel that is part of the colostomy but below the opening in the abdominal wall protrudes into the abdomen around the area of the surgical incision, a ----------------- occurs.

Deselect Answer

umblical hernia

hiatal hernia

inguinal hernia

parastomal hernia

None

Gastric lavage should be performed within -------------- after ingestion of poison.

Deselect Answer

30 minutes

40 minutes

50 minutes

60 minutes