Quizzes & Surveys - Page 3 of 13

Foundations Day 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Foundations Day 2 Quiz

June 18, 2025

20 Multiple Choice Questions and 5 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the primary reason for shortening or removing a drain?

A. To prevent infection

B. To relieve patient discomfort

C. To improve drainage efficiency

D. To allow healing or stop fluid accumulation

None

2. What is the primary purpose of a nasogastric tube (NG Tube)?

A. To decompress the stomach

B. To drain bile from the liver

C. To drain cerebrospinal fluid

D. To drain pleural fluid

None

3. What is the main advantage of using a closed drainage system, such as a Jackson-Pratt or Hemovac drain?

A. Larger volume drainage

B. Reduced risk of infection

C. Easier to monitor visually

D. Less expensive design

None

4. Which of the following is an open drain commonly used to allow fluids to drain from a wound, relying on gravity and capillary action?

A. Pigtail Drain

B. Penrose Drain

C. Jackson-Pratt Drain

D. Foley Catheter

None

5. Which of the following drains is specifically designed to remove bile following biliary surgery?

A. T-Tube

B. Hemovac Drain

C. Ventriculoperitoneal Shunt

D. Chest Tube

None

6. In which scenario would you expect a chest tube to be inserted?

A. After a hernia repair surgery

B. For treating a pleural effusion

C. Following a bowel resection

D. For draining cerebrospinal fluid

None

7. Which of the following is the most important aspect of nursing care for a patient with a drain?

A. Ensuring the patient remains completely immobile

B. Monitoring the drain for infection and output

C. Increasing the patient's fluid intake

D. Removing the drain if it becomes uncomfortable

None

8. What is a stoma?

A) A pouch used to collect stool.

B) A surgically created opening in the abdomen.

C) A type of colostomy bag.

D) A blockage in the colon.

None

9. Which of the following is a characteristic of stool from an ileostomy?

A) Formed stool

B) Semi-liquid to liquid stool

C) Hard stool

D) Semi-formed stool

None

10. Which of the following is not a purpose of colostomy care?

A) Maintain stoma and peristomal skin integrity.

B) Promote general discomfort.

C) Enhance self-image and self-concept.

D) Reduce odor.

None

11. Which of the following is NOT an indication for a colostomy?

A) Crohn’s disease

B) Tumors of the colon

C) Trauma to the colon

D) Stenosis of the ileum

None

12. What color should a healthy stoma be?

A) Pale white

B) Dusky blue

C) Dark brown

D) Reddish pink

None

13. Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of a colostomy?

A) Stenosis

B) Necrosis

C) Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

D) Hyperthyroidism

None

14. Which of the following complications involves narrowing of the stoma?

A) Prolapse

B) Retraction

C) Stenosis

D) Hernia

None

15. What is the primary purpose of abdominal paracentesis?

A. To remove air from the pleural cavity

B. To remove excess fluid from the peritoneal cavity

C. To relieve bowel obstruction

D. To assist with liver function

None

16. What is a specific diagnostic indication for performing paracentesis?

A. Bowel obstruction

B. Pulmonary tuberculosis

C. New-onset ascites

D. Heart failure

None

17. Which complication can arise from rapid drainage of a large volume of fluid during paracentesis?

A. Hypovolemia

B. Hypertension

C. Hypernatremia

D. Pulmonary edema

None

18. Which of the following tests is essential before performing paracentesis?

A. Serum glucose

B. FBC and clotting screen

C. Chest X-ray

D. ECG

None

19. What is the rationale for applying an abdominal binder post-paracentesis?

A. To prevent fluid reaccumulation

B. To maintain intra-abdominal pressure

C. To treat infection

D. To secure the cannula

None

20. What is a common site-related complication of paracentesis?

A. Pulmonary embolism

B. Abdominal organ injury

C. Deep vein thrombosis

D. Appendicitis

None

Fill-in Questions

None

21. In the procedure for abdominal paracentesis, a needle is inserted into the ________ cavity to remove fluid.

22. One therapeutic purpose of abdominal paracentesis is to relieve pressure caused by ________.

23. In the event of rapid fluid removal during paracentesis, ________ can occur, potentially leading to shock.

24. A ________ bandage is applied firmly around the abdomen after paracentesis to help maintain intra-abdominal pressure.

25. Before removing a surgical drain, it's important to assess for signs of ________, such as redness or swelling around the site.

Name

Time's up

Foundations Day 2 Quiz Read More »

Foundations Day 1 Quiz

Welcome to your Foundations Day 1 Quiz

June 18, 2025

25 Multiple Choice Questions

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is NOT a right related to medication administration?

(a) Right formulation.

(b) Right patient.

(d) Right time.

None

2. Which of the following routes provides the fastest systemic absorption?

(a) Oral.

(b) Sublingual.

(d) Transdermal.

None

3. Which of the following is an example of a parenteral route of drug administration?

(a) Oral.

(b) Sublingual.

(d) Buccal.

None

4. Which of the following abbreviations refers to four times a day?

(a) B.i.d.

(b) T.d.s.

(d) P.r.n.

None

5. Which form of medicine is intended to dissolve in the mouth?

(a) Tablets.

(b) Capsules. .

(d) Syrups

None

6. What is the correct action when a drug has changed color before administration?

(a) Administer it immediately.

(b) Mix it with another drug.

(d) Shake the drug thoroughly.

None

7. Which is an appropriate route for a patient who cannot take oral medications due to vomiting?

(a) Intravenous.

(b) Oral. .

(d) Transdermal

None

8. Which of the following is an example of a controlled-release formulation?

(a) Syrup.

(b) Tablet.

(d) Enteric-coated tablet.

None

9. Why should a humidifier be used when administering oxygen through a nasal cannula?

(a) To prevent nasal irritation.

(b) To ensure proper oxygen flow.

(d) To improve patient comfort.

None

10. What is the correct angle for inserting a needle during intradermal injection?

(a) 90 degrees.

(b) 45 degrees.

(d) 60 degrees.

None

11. Why should the needle be aspirated during an intramuscular injection?

(a) To check for medication leakage.

(b) To see if air is in the syringe.

(d) To create a negative pressure zone.

None

12. Which muscle is generally safest for intramuscular injections?

(a) Deltoid muscle.

(b) Thigh muscle.

(d) Saphenous muscle

None

13. What is the primary reason for straightening the auditory canal before instilling ear drops?

(a) To avoid injury to the tympanic membrane

(b) To ensure the medication flows through the entire ear canal

(d) To enhance patient comfort

None

14. What is the reason for requesting the patient to remain supine for 5 minutes after administering nasal drops?

(a) To prevent aspiration of the medication

(b) To allow maximum absorption of the medication

(d) To ensure proper blood circulation in the nasal area

None

15. Why should a cotton swab be placed in the auditory canal after administering ear drops?

(a) To prevent contamination of the ear

(b) To stop medication from leaking out

(d) To enhance the patient’s comfort

None

16. What is the primary indication for the transfusion of whole blood?

A. Severe burns

B. Severe anemia

C. Thrombocytopenia

D. Acute massive blood loss

None

17. Which blood product is best suited for a patient with thrombocytopenia?

A. Plasma

B. Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs)

C. Platelet Concentration

D. Whole Blood

None

18. Which of the following complications involves distended neck veins and shortness of breath during a transfusion?

A. Allergic reaction

B. Circulatory overload

C. Febrile reaction

D. Pyogenic reaction

None

19. A patient with anemia requiring an increase in oxygen-carrying capacity but no fluid overload should receive which blood product?

A. Whole Blood

B. Platelet Concentration

C. Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs)

D. Plasma

None

20. Which of the following is a cause of a febrile reaction during a blood transfusion?

A. Hypersensitivity to blood components

B. Antibodies in recipient reacting to donor white blood cells

C. Bacterial contamination of blood product

D. Mismatched blood types

None

21. Which action should be taken first if a transfusion reaction is suspected?

A. Slow the infusion rate

B. Administer antihistamines

C. Stop the transfusion immediately

D. Check the patient’s blood type

None

22. Which of the following best describes an incompatibility reaction?

A. Caused by mismatched blood types

B. Caused by bacterial contamination

C. Results in fever and chills

D. Caused by infusion of large volumes too quickly

None

23. Which of the following is NOT a component of the nurse's role before transfusion?

A. Verify the blood type and Rh factor

B. Counsel the patient on transfusion benefits

C. Administer antihistamines

D. Take vital observations

None

24. Which blood transfusion complication involves high fever and chills due to bacterial contamination?

A. Febrile reaction

B. Pyogenic reaction

C. Allergic reaction

D. Incompatibility reaction

None

25. ______________refers to the total amount of drug administered at one time.

Name

Time's up

Foundations Day 1 Quiz Read More »

Mental Pharma UNMEB Questions

Welcome to your Mental Pharma UNMEB Questions

June 18, 2025

25 Questions, 20 Objectives, 5 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

ALL QUESTIONS ARE FROM UNMEB PAST PAPERS

1. Which of the following is a cardinal feature of neurotic disorders?

(a) Delusions.

(b) Hallucinations.

(d) Excessive energy.

None

2. Which of the following is a first rank symptom of schizophrenia?

(a) Somatic passivity.

(b) Incongruity of affect.

(d) Catatonic symptom.

None

3. Which of the following is a minor mental disorder?

(a) Delirium.

(b) Panic attacks.

(d) Schizophrenia.

None

Hint

4. Which of the following is NOT a prominent feature with post-traumatic stress disorder?

(a) Persistent anxiety.

(b) Delusions.

(d) Flashbacks.

None

5. The commonest sleep disorder in patients suffering from endogenous depression is:

(a) Absolute insomnia.

(b) Somnambulism.

(d) Terminal insomnia.

None

Hint

6. Which of the following is the most commonly abused psychoactive substance?

(a) Alcohol.

(b) Opium.

(d) Cocaine.

None

7. Which of the following is an example of an intellectual disability in children?

(a) Dyslexia

(b) ADHD

(d) Autistic spectrum disorders.

None

8. Which of these is NOT a provision in the penal code act for admitting a criminal patient?

(a) Assessment.

(b) Admission.

(d) Discharge.

None

9. Under what section of the mental treatment Act are physically fit and mentally stable patients discharged?

(a) 18

(b) 19

(d) 21

None

10. Which of the following disorders is absent in patients with anorexia nervosa?

(a) Persistent pre-occupation with eating.

(b) Vomiting after eating.

(d) Diarrhea after eating.

None

11. Which of the following is the most common psychiatric emergency in adolescents in Uganda today?

(a) Rape and defilement.

(b) Aggression and violence.

(d) Homicide.

None

12. The commonest cause of death among psychiatric patients is

(a) aggression and violence.

(b) suicide.

(d) anorexia nervosa.

None

13. The most significant predictor of suicidal behavior is

(a) previous suicidal attempt.

(b) substance abuse.

(d) loss of a job.

None

14. The immediate care given to a patient in the post-ictal confusional state is

(a) sedusion.

(b) re-orientation.

(d) physical restraint.

None

15. Seizures that occur during status epilepticus maybe fatal mostly because they can

(a) lead to anoxia.

(b) cause suffocation.

(d) result in fractures.

None

17. Which of the following is a combined oral contraceptive pill?

(a) Norgestrel.

(b) Microgynon.

(d) Levonorgestrel.

None

18. Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?

(a) Nicotine.

(b) Codeine.

(d) Heroin.

None

Hint

19. Which of these substances accounts for more deaths due to toxic overdose?

(a) Nicotine.

(b) Caffeine.

(d) Valium.

None

20. The safest drug for the treatment of malaria in the first trimester is:

(a) Quinine.

(b) Artemether.

(d) Chloroquine.

None

Fill In Questions

None

21. The process of administering a drug to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms is termed as________?

22. A syndrome characterized by mutism, immobility, and reduced response to the environment is termed as_______?

23. Drugs that suppress the body's immune system are classified as_______?

24. Drugs that inhibit uterine frequency and strength of contractions are called____________?

25. A drug that treats bronchial asthma but can also be used to manage threatening abortions is_____________?

Name

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Mental Health Day 4 and Day 5

Welcome to your Mental Health Day 4 and Day 5

June 18, 2025

25 Questions, 20 Objectives, 5 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

A) Flat affect

B) Delusions

C) Social withdrawal

D) Poor hygiene

None

2. A person believes that they have supernatural powers and are destined to save the world. This is an example of:

A) Persecutory delusion

B) Grandiose delusion

C) Paranoid delusion

D) Erotomanic delusion

None

3. Which subtype of schizophrenia is primarily characterized by disorganized speech and behavior?

A) Paranoid schizophrenia

B) Hebephrenic schizophrenia

C) Catatonic schizophrenia

D) Residual schizophrenia

None

4. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing schizophrenia?

A) High socioeconomic status

B) Living in a rural area

C) Family history of schizophrenia

D) Lack of childhood trauma

None

5. Which of the following best describes negative symptoms in schizophrenia?

A) They represent an excess of normal functioning.

B) They are associated with better treatment outcomes.

C) They often involve a reduction in emotional and social functioning.

D) They are primarily associated with delusions and hallucinations.

None

6. A person presents with immobility, waxy flexibility, and resistance to movement. What condition does this describe?

A) Hebephrenic schizophrenia

B) Paranoid schizophrenia

C) Catatonic schizophrenia

D) Residual schizophrenia

None

7. In schizophrenia, "word salad" refers to which of the following symptoms?

A. Delusions

B. Disorganized speech

C. Hallucinations

D. Catatonia

None

8. Which of the following best describes the term "alogia"?

A. Poverty of speech

B. Lack of motivation

C. Difficulty with memory

D. False beliefs

None

9. What is the term used to describe a lack of motivation in schizophrenia?

A. Avolition

B. Anhedonia

C. Alogia

D. Apathy

None

10. Which of the following is a Schneider’s first-rank symptom of schizophrenia?

A) Paranoia

B) Thought Broadcasting

C) Emotional blunting

D) Avolition

None

11. Which of the following is NOT a common extrapyramidal side effect (EPS) of typical antipsychotics?

A) Acute dystonia

B) Akathisia

C) Parkinsonism

D) Agranulocytosis

None

12. Which of the following is a key nursing intervention for a patient with a self-care deficit related to schizophrenia?

A) Encourage the patient to complete self-care tasks independently at all times

B) Provide structured routines for self-care activities

C) Criticize the patient if they fail to maintain hygiene

D) Avoid assisting with hygiene tasks

None

13. Which of the following is a key characteristic of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?

a) Periods of mania and depression

b) Low-grade depressive symptoms for 2 years

c) Depressed mood or loss of interest in activities

d) Rapid cycling mood changes

None

14. Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) is characterized by:

a) Periods of euphoria followed by depression

b) Short, intense episodes of depression

c) Low-grade depressive symptoms for at least 2 years

d) Severe mood swings, including mania

None

15. Which type of antidepressant is considered first-line treatment for depression?

a) MAOIs

b) SSRIs

c) Tricyclic antidepressants

d) Tetracyclic antidepressants

None

16. SSRIs work by:

a) Increasing dopamine levels

b) Blocking the reuptake of serotonin

c) Reducing the activity of monoamine oxidase

d) Increasing norepinephrine reuptake

None

17. What is the primary goal in the management of depression?

a) Control of physical symptoms

b) Complete remission and functional recovery

c) Prevent relapse through lifestyle changes

d) Long-term medication use without psychotherapy

None

18. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is most appropriate for which of the following cases?

a) Mild depression

b) Treatment-resistant severe depression

c) Dysthymia

d) Panic disorders

None

19. Which of the following is characterized by loud snoring and periods of stopped breathing during sleep?

a) Insomnia

b) Narcolepsy

c) Sleep apnea

d) Restless legs syndrome

None

20. Which drug is used for short-term treatment of insomnia and is contraindicated in patients with severe hepatic impairment?

a) Zolpidem

b) Diazepam

c) Phenobarbital

d) Midazolam

None

Fill In Questions

None

21. A sensation perceived by a patient that precedes an epileptic attack is known as__________________?

22. The condition in which the patient sleeps during the day and remains awake throughout the night is referred to as_________________?

23. The type of schizophrenia characterized by disturbance of motor behavior is____________?

24. The act of getting up and walking around while asleep is referred to as__________?

25. Increased resistance to the usual normal dose of a particular drug is known as_____________?

Name

Time's up

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Mental Health Day 2

Welcome to your Mental Health Day 2

June 18, 2025

20 objectives

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?

A. Gradual onset of mild anxiety

B. Sudden onset of intense fear with physical symptoms

C. Fear of a specific object or situation

D. Persistent low-grade anxiety

None

2. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of panic attacks?

A. Hypoglycemia

B. Neurotransmitter imbalances

C. Genetic predisposition

D. Focal seizures

None

3. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a panic attack as outlined in the DSM-5?

A. Fear of dying

B. Hyperactivity

C. Palpitations

D. Trembling

None

4. Which factor does NOT increase the risk of developing epilepsy?

A. Genetic predisposition

B. Brain tumors

C. Frequent alcohol consumption

D. Chronic stress

None

5. Which of the following types of seizures is characterized by brief lapses in awareness, often without physical manifestations?

A. Grand mal seizure

B. Atonic seizure

C. Absence seizure

D. Myoclonic seizure

None

6. Which of the following phases of a grand mal seizure is characterized by stiffening of the muscles?

A. Tonic phase

B. Clonic phase

C. Aura phase

D. Post-ictal phase

None

7. Which of the following is NOT part of the management strategy for panic attacks?

A. Education and reassurance

B. Oxygen therapy

C. Beta-blockers

D. Antipsychotic medication

None

8. Which type of epilepsy is characterized by a sudden loss of muscle tone, causing the body to go limp or collapse?

A) Absence seizures

B) Myoclonic seizures

C) Atonic seizures

D) Focal seizures

None

9. The aura phase in a grand mal seizure refers to:

A) The sudden loss of consciousness

B) Rhythmic jerking of the limbs

C) A brief warning sensation before the seizure

D) The period of confusion following the seizure

None

10. Which of the following is not a potential trigger for a panic attack?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Hyperthyroidism

C) High calcium levels

D) Excessive caffeine intake

None

11. Which is not a characteristic of absence seizures (petit mal)?

A) Loss of consciousness

B) Rhythmic jerking of limbs

C) Brief period of staring

D) Usually seen in children

None

12. What type of seizure involves sudden, involuntary muscle jerks or spasms?

A) Atonic seizures

B) Myoclonic seizures

C) Absence seizures

D) Tonic seizures

None

13. Which of the following best describes status epilepticus?

A) A seizure lasting less than 1 minute

B) A seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes

C) A seizure that occurs only during sleep

D) A seizure triggered by emotional stress

None

14. Which diagnostic test is most helpful in identifying abnormal electrical activity in the brain during a seizure?

A) Blood glucose test

B) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

C) Skull X-ray

D) Urinalysis

None

15. What is the first priority when managing a patient with status epilepticus in an emergency setting?

A) Administering anticonvulsants

B) Securing the airway and ensuring adequate oxygenation

C) Checking blood sugar levels

D) Performing a CT scan

None

16. Which of the following is an appropriate first aid measure during a seizure?

A) Insert a spoon in the person's mouth

B) Hold the person’s limbs to prevent jerking

C) Roll the person onto their side after the seizure

D) Administer oral medication

None

17. Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of status epilepticus?

A) Respiratory arrest

B) Hyperthermia

C) Arrhythmia

D) Kidney stones

None

18. What is the purpose of administering thiamine in a patient with status epilepticus and suspected alcohol abuse?

A) To prevent aspiration pneumonia

B) To manage dehydration

C) To prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

D) To lower blood pressure

None

19. Which of the following is an appropriate action if a patient continues to have seizures despite initial treatment with benzodiazepines?

A) Administer oral anticonvulsants

B) Administer IV phenytoin

C) Perform a lumbar puncture

D) Wait for the seizure to subside on its own

None

20. Which of the following is NOT recommended during first aid for a patient experiencing a seizure?

A) Loosening tight clothing

B) Timing the seizure

C) Giving them something to drink

D) Protecting the head from injury

None

Name

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Mental Health Day 1

Welcome to your Mental Health Day 1

June 18, 2025

20 objectives

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is NOT a reason someone might commit suicide?

a) Adultery

b) Poverty

c) Having a chronic illness

d) Happiness

None

2. What mental health disorder is strongly associated with suicidal thoughts?

a) Schizophrenia

b) Gastroenteritis

c) Hypertension

d) Asthma

None

3. What is parasuicide?

a) Suicide committed in revenge

b) A non-fatal act of self-harm with intent to die

c) Suicide committed by multiple people at the same time

d) Suicide performed without intent

None

4. Which of the following statements is FALSE about methods of suicide?

a) Hanging is a common method

b) Poisoning is chosen due to its perceived painlessness

c) Drowning is the most common method

d) Drug overdose is a frequent method

None

5. What should be the nurse's first action when managing a patient admitted after a suicide attempt?

a) Isolate the patient

b) Take brief history

c) Sign a caution card

d) Remove harmful objects

None

6. What is the main goal of cognitive therapy in suicide prevention?

A) To induce sedation and prevent impulsive actions

B) To explore and change maladaptive thoughts and behaviors

C) To address physical injuries related to suicide attempts

D) To isolate the patient and provide intensive monitoring

None

7. Which type of suicide is characterized by the influence of another person’s suicide?

A) Parasuicide

B) Copycat suicide

C) Vengeance suicide

D) Mass suicide

None

8. What is the first priority in managing a patient who has attempted suicide by poisoning?

A) Conducting a mental status examination

B) Removing harmful objects from the patient’s vicinity

C) Administering the prescribed antidote or performing gastric lavage

D) Establishing a positive nurse-patient relationship

None

9. Which of the following is a therapeutic modality that may be ordered for severe depression leading to suicidal ideation?

A) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

C) Occupational Therapy

D) Group Therapy

None

10. Which symptom is NOT considered a suicide indicator?

A) Giving away personal belongings

B) Increased social activity

C) Expressing feelings of hopelessness

D) Sudden mood swings

None

11. Which of the following is a key difference between aggression and violence?

A) Aggression involves physical harm only.

B) Violence involves physical force causing harm, while aggression may only involve threats.

C) Aggression always results in harm to others.

D) Violence is only verbal, while aggression is physical.

None

12. Which of the following mental health conditions can contribute to aggression due to hallucinations?

A) Schizophrenia

B) Depression

C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

None

13. Which mood stabilizer can result in agranulocytosis?

A) Lithium carbonate

B) Sodium valproate

C) Carbamazepine

D) Valproic acid

None

14. Which of the following is the primary indication for mood stabilizers?

A) Anxiety disorders

B) Bipolar affective disorder

C) Schizophrenia

D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

None

15. What is a serious long-term side effect of lithium carbonate use?

A) Pancreatitis

B) Hypothyroidism

C) Hypertension

D) Liver failure

None

16. Which of the following is considered a psychiatric emergency?

a) A patient with a cold

b) A patient with suicidal behavior

c) A patient with a broken arm

d) A patient undergoing elective surgery

None

17. Which of the following is a suicide indicator?

a) Giving away personal belongings

b) Increased participation in social activities

c) Planning for future events

d) Improved appearance and self-care

None

18. Which of the following is the primary goal when managing aggression and violence in a psychiatric setting?

A) To protect the patient and others from harm

B) To sedate the patient immediately

C) To isolate the patient for observation

D) To discharge the patient as soon as possible

None

19. What should be done if a patient remains aggressive after physical restraint?

A) Remove the restraint immediately

B) Leave the patient alone

C) Seclude the patient and administer sedatives if needed

D) Transfer the patient to a different facility

None

20. Which medication is often used to calm a patient displaying aggressive behavior?

A) Antidepressants

B) Diazepam

C) Antibiotics

D) Insulin

None

Name

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Pharmacology Day 4 Quiz

Welcome to your Pharmacology Day 4 Quiz

June 18, 2025

15 objectives

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the primary method used to issue narcotic drugs in the pharmacy?

A) FIFO (First In, First Out)

B) FEFO (First Expiry, First Out)

C) LIFO (Last In, First Out)

D) FIDO (First In, Disperse Out)

None

2. What is the retention period for narcotic record books?

A) 6 months

B) 1 year

C) 2 years

D) 5 years

None

3. What is the legal implication of possessing narcotics unlawfully in Uganda?

A) A fine of 1 million Ugandan shillings

B) Up to 2 years imprisonment

C) A warning letter from the NDA

D) Community service for 6 months

None

4. Which antidote is administered for a narcotic overdose?

A) Naloxone

B) Clonidine

C) Methadone

D) Morphine

None

5. Which side effect is commonly associated with prolonged opioid use?

A) Diarrhea

B) Constipation

C) Increased appetite

D) Hypertension

None

6. Which of the following is a contraindication for using opioids?

A) Severe asthma

B) Diarrhea

C) Post-operative pain

D) Palliative care

None

7. What must be done if the keys to the narcotic cupboard are lost?

A) Use a master key

B) Report to the police

C) Replace the locks immediately

D) Wait until the next shift to report it

None

8. Which of the following is a common organophosphate used in agriculture?

A) Paracetamol

B) Fenthion

C) Aspirin

D) Ibuprofen

None

9. Which of the following is NOT a route of organophosphate absorption?

A) Ingestion

B) Cutaneous (through skin)

C) Inhalation

D) Intravenous (IV)

None

10. What is the goal of atropine administration in organophosphate poisoning?

A) To sedate the patient

B) To keep the airway dry

C) To increase urine output

D) To promote salivation

None

11. How long is a narcotic prescription valid in Uganda?

A) 7 days

B) 14 days

C) 1 month

D) 6 months

None

12. Which of the following opioid antagonists is used to reverse opioid overdose?

A) Morphine

B) Naloxone

C) Codeine

D) Fentanyl

None

13. Which of the following is a common indication for using morphine in palliative care?

A) Headache relief

B) Cancer-related pain

C) Mild musculoskeletal pain

D) Allergic reactions

None

14. Which antidote is primarily used to treat organophosphate poisoning?

A) Atropine

B) Penicillin

C) Morphine

D) Haloperidol

None

15. Not many questions that could be made from the work, this should be enough for now.

It's okay

Understandable

None

Name

Time's up

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Pharmacology Day 2 and 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Pharmacology Day 2 and 3 Quiz

June 18, 2025

25 objectives

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for the development and maintenance of male characteristics?

a) Estrogen

b) Progesterone

c) Testosterone

d) Cortisol

None

2. Which hormone stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone?

a) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

b) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

c) Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH)

d) Prolactin

None

3. Which of the following is an anabolic effect of testosterone?

a) Growth of facial and body hair

b) Deepening of the voice

c) Promotion of muscle growth and strength

d) Enlargement of the prostate gland

None

4. Which of the following drugs is used specifically for the treatment of endometriosis by suppressing ovulation?

a) Testosterone

b) Danazol

c) Fluoxymesterone

d) Oxandrolone

None

5. Which of the following is a contraindication for androgen therapy?

a) Hypogonadism

b) Delayed puberty

c) Breast cancer in males

d) Pregnancy

None

6. What is a common side effect of testosterone therapy in men?

a) Increased estrogen levels

b) Testicular atrophy

c) Increased production of thyroid hormones

d) Hypertension

None

7. Which anti-androgen drug is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

a) Spironolactone

b) Flutamide

c) Finasteride

d) Ketoconazole

None

8. Which of the following is a common side effect of anti-androgens like spironolactone in women?

a) Increased libido

b) Decreased hair growth

c) Hyperkalemia

d) Hypoglycemia

None

9. Which of the following correctly describes impotence?

a) The inability to achieve ejaculation

b) The inability to achieve or maintain an erection

c) The inability to achieve sexual desire

d) The inability to achieve orgasm

None

10. What is the primary neurotransmitter involved in initiating an erection?

a) Dopamine

b) Acetylcholine

c) Serotonin

d) Nitric oxide (NO)

None

11. What class of drugs does sildenafil belong to?

a) Central conditioners

b) Peripheral initiators

c) Peripheral inhibitors

d) Central initiators

None

12. Tadalafil has a longer duration of action compared to sildenafil. How long can tadalafil's effects last?

a) 4-6 hours

b) 8-12 hours

c) 12-24 hours

d) 24-36 hours

None

13. What is the primary purpose of vaccines?

A) To cure diseases

B) To provide nutrition

C) To stimulate the immune system to develop immunity

D) To enhance physical strength

None

14. Which type of immunity involves the body actively producing its own antibodies?

A) Passive Immunity

B) Active Immunity

C) Artificial Passive Immunity

D) Innate Immunity

None

15. Which of the following vaccines is an example of a live attenuated vaccine?

A) Hepatitis B vaccine

B) DPT vaccine

C) Measles vaccine

D) PCV10 vaccine

None

16. What is the primary role of the cold chain in immunization programs?

A) To enhance the taste of vaccines

B) To ensure vaccines are stored and transported at appropriate temperatures

C) To increase the efficacy of oral vaccines

D) To improve vaccine production speed

None

17. Which type of immunity is transferred from a mother to her baby through the placenta?

A) Artificial Active Immunity

B) Natural Passive Immunity

C) Artificial Passive Immunity

D) Natural Active Immunity

None

18. Which of the following is a characteristic of innate immunity?

A) It provides specific protection against a particular pathogen.

B) It involves the production of antibodies.

C) It is present from birth and provides general protection.

D) It is acquired after exposure to a pathogen or vaccination.

None

19. Which component of the immune system is primarily responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens?

A) B cells

B) T cells

C) Phagocytes

D) Natural Killer (NK) cells

None

20. Which of the following best describes the role of immunological agents?

A) They are antibiotics used to kill bacteria.

B) They are drugs that modify the immune system's activity.

C) They are painkillers used to reduce inflammation.

D) They are vitamins that boost overall health.

None

21. Which type of drug would most likely be used to prevent organ transplant rejection?

A) Antibiotics

B) Immunosuppressants

C) Immunostimulants

D) Antivirals

None

22. What is the primary function of interferons in the immune system?

A) They increase the production of red blood cells.

B) They interfere with viral replication and enhance immune response.

C) They suppress the immune system to prevent autoimmune diseases.

D) They promote the growth of bacteria in the gut.

None

23. Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by DNA replication?

A) G1 Phase

B) S Phase

C) G2 Phase

D) Mitosis Phase

None

24. Which drug is commonly used to treat hormone-sensitive breast cancer in postmenopausal women?

A) Tamoxifen

B) Vinblastine

C) Cyclophosphamide

D) Fluorouracil

None

25. Which of the following is a common contraindication for antineoplastic agents?

A) Allergies

B) Diabetes

C) Pregnancy and lactation

D) Hypertension

None

Name

Time's up

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Abnormal Midwifery Day 9 Quiz

Welcome to your RESEARCH WEEK ONE TEST Which has 30 MCQ'S and 10 FILL-IN's

RESEARCH METHODOLODY

PAPER CODE: DNE/DME 121

TIME ALLOWED : 1:30 hrs

Attempt All Numbers.

What does the term "phenomena" refer to in the context of research?

a. Logical explanations for observed events

b. Events or situations observed to exist but not easily explained

c. The scientific investigation of data

d. Personal opinions and attitudes

None

Which term implies that research follows laid-out procedures and is developed in a coherent manner?

a. Scientific investigation

b. Objective

c. Systematic

d. Phenomenology

None

What does "Objective" mean in the context of research?

a. Personal opinions and attitudes influencing research findings

b. Research findings are reported as they are, without interpretation

c. The use of the scientific method in research

d. Gathering data without a specific objective

None

What is the primary purpose of an abstract in a research article?

a. To provide detailed research findings

b. To present the methodology used in the study

c. To inform readers of key findings in a concise manner

d. To list all the references used in the research

None

What term refers to the process of selecting a representative part of a population for research purposes?

a. Sampling

b. Cohort

c. Data collection

d. Hypothesis testing

None

What does the term "bias" mean in research?

a. The selection of subjects from a population using random procedures

b. Undesired actions or effects of a drug or treatment

c. When a point of view prevents impartial judgment on research-related issues

d. The extent to which an instrument measures what it intends to measure

None

What is the purpose of a pilot study in research?

a. To present preliminary research findings

b. To test the usefulness of research instruments

c. To conduct a full-scale research study

d. To refine the methodology and test research elements for feasibility

None

What characteristic of research involves conducting a study with a well-defined and focused purpose?

a. Specific/purposiveness

b. Empirical

c. Testability

d. Objectivity

None

Which characteristic of research refers to its ability to be repeated in similar circumstances to support the results obtained?

a. Testability

b. Objectivity

c. Precision

d. Replicability

None

Which type of research aims to find solutions to practical problems, such as improving agricultural crop production or curing specific diseases?

a. Basic research

b. Experimental research

c. Descriptive research

d. Applied research

None

What is the primary motivation behind basic research?

a. To expand man's knowledge

b. To create or invent something new

c. To find commercial value in discoveries

d. To answer practical questions

None

Which type of research seeks to establish relationships or correlations between two or more variables without necessarily determining causality?

a. Experimental research

b. Correlational research

c. Narrative research

d. Ethnographic research

None

What type of research is concerned with investigating phenomena that are difficult or impossible to quantify mathematically, such as beliefs, meanings, attributes, and symbols?

a. Descriptive research

b. Quantitative research

c. Experimental research

d. Qualitative research

None

What type of research is more concerned with questions about "How much," "How many," "How often," and "To what extent"?

a. Qualitative research

b. Descriptive research

c. Experimental research

d. Quantitative research

None

Why is research considered a science?

a. Because it is based on personal opinions and bias

b. Due to its lack of systematic approach

c. Because it follows a systematic and structured approach, similar to the scientific method

d. Because it relies solely on subjective data

None

What is the role of an independent variable (IV) in research?

a. It is the outcome or response that is measured or observed.

b. It is expected to change as a result of variations in the dependent variable.

c. It is manipulated or controlled to determine its effect on the dependent variable.

d. It represents confounding variables in the study.

None

What is the purpose of confounding variables(Extraneous & Intervening) in research?

a. To manipulate the independent variable

b. To control extraneous variables

c. To influence the dependent variable

d. To confuse the relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable

None

What is a research problem?

a. A statement about the research topic

b. An area of concern or a gap in knowledge

c. A statement of the research hypothesis

d. A summary of the research findings

None

What are the qualities of a good research problem according to the FINER acronym?

a. Feasible, Incomplete, New, Ethical, Relevant

b. Factual, Interesting, Novel, Ethical, Relevant

c. Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical, Relevant

d. Flexible, Investigative, Navigational, Experimental, Relevant

None

What is the purpose of the "A" (Attainable) in SMART research objectives?

a. To emphasize the importance of the research

b. To make the objective more interesting

c. To ensure that the objective is achievable with available resources

d. To specify a timeframe for the objective

None

Which type of research objective provides a big-picture view of what the research intends to accomplish?

a. Specific objectives

b. General objectives

c. Measurable objectives

d. Time-bound objectives

None

In a research proposal, what is the purpose of the "Declaration" page?

a. To list the acronyms used in the proposal

b. To provide a table of contents for the proposal

c. To declare the approval of the research by the principal investigator

d. To declare that the researcher acknowledges the work as their own

None

In a research proposal, which section typically includes pages numbered in Roman numerals?

a. Preliminary Pages

b. Main Body

c. References

d. Appendices

None

The main body of a research proposal contains the following EXCEPT;

a. Chapter Two

b. Chapter One

c. Chapter Four

d. Chapter Three

None

What is the purpose of specific objectives in research?

a. To outline the research methodology

b. To specify the research hypothesis

c. To provide a detailed plan for data analysis

d. To break down the general objective into smaller, manageable parts

None

What type of variable is socioeconomic status in the study "Influence of socioeconomic status on housing conditions"?

a. Independent Variable (IV)

b. Dependent Variable (DV)

c. Intervening Variable

d. Extraneous Variable (EV)

None

What is the dependent variable (DV) in a research study?

a. It is the factor or condition that researchers manipulate.

b. It is the outcome or response that is measured or observed.

c. It represents potential confounding variables.

d. It is a variable used for moderating the relationship between IV and DV.

None

What type of research is more concerned with questions about "How much," "How many," "How often," and "To what extent"?

a. Qualitative research

b. Descriptive research

c. Experimental research

d. Quantitative research

None

What does descriptive research primarily focus on?

a. Predicting future outcomes

b. Experimenting with variables

c. Providing an accurate portrayal of characteristics

d. Developing innovative technologies

None

Phew, you are on number 30, breath-in, Out, Huh

I need a free mark

No, I don't need a free mark

None

Phenomenology falls under the category of ____________ research.

The --------- effect is a phenomenon (In Phenomenology research) where a person experiences real improvements in their condition after receiving a treatment that has no therapeutic effect.

A hypothesis is a specific and testable statement made for a particular experiment, while a ____________ is a comprehensive explanation of natural phenomena supported by substantial evidence.

____________ refers to an individual or source of information who provides valuable data or knowledge to the researcher.

Research is based on observation and measurement of phenomena as directly experienced or observed by the researcher or based on real life experiences, makes research ____________.

____________ research aims to describe an experience as it was actually lived by the person, focusing on the individual's perspective.

The type of data is collected in quantitative research is ----------- data?

A research proposal is written in the __________ tense because it describes what the researcher intends to undertake in the future.

The first preliminary page of a research proposal is a ---------- page.

The "Approval" page in a research proposal is signed by both the supervisor and the __________.

Name

Time's up

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Abnormal Midwifery Day 8 Quiz

Welcome to your Research Quiz Day 3 and Day 4

12 Questions.

10 MCQ's

2 Fill Ins

Which of the following is a purpose of research objectives?

a) To gather as much data as possible

b) To avoid wasting resources

c) To keep the study broad and vague

d) To confuse the researcher

None

Which characteristic is NOT part of a good research objective?

a) Specificity

b) Measurability

c) Complexity

d) Time-bound

None

What is the purpose of specific objectives in research?

a) To provide a broad overview of the study

b) To break down the general objective into manageable parts

c) To confuse the researcher

d) To collect as much data as possible

None

Which of the following is NOT an action verb commonly used in research objectives?

a) To compare

b) To appreciate

c) To describe

d) To establish

None

What does the acronym SMART stand for in the context of research objectives?

a) Simple, Measurable, Achievable, Rated, Timely

b) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-Bound

c) Specific, Meaningful, Appropriate, Realistic, Timely

d) Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Targeted

None

Which type of objective provides a big-picture view of what the research intends to accomplish?

a) Specific objectives

b) General objectives

c) Non-action objectives

d) Complex objectives

None

What is the main advantage of having clear research objectives?

a) They make the study more complicated

b) They confuse the researcher

c) They help in staying focused on the research goal

d) They lead to unnecessary data collection

None

Which term is NOT associated with a well-formulated research objective?

a) Aim

b) Purpose

c) Hypothesis

d) Goal

None

What is the primary purpose of a research proposal?

a) To summarize existing research

b) To describe completed research

c) To outline future research intentions

d) To provide a literature review

None

What is the main purpose of studying research as an educational requirement?

a) To discourage students from pursuing research

b) To provide a summary of research findings

c) To prepare students for the research process

d) To avoid the need for ethical considerations

None

A research proposal outlines what the researcher intends to investigate, why it's important, and how the research will be done. It is typically written in the _______ tense.

What are the preliminary pages of a research proposal typically numbered in?

Name

Time's up

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