Quizzes & Surveys - Page 9 of 10

Research Day 8

Welcome to your Research Day 8

September 16, 2024

Attempt all questions

1. Which section of a research proposal typically includes the researcher's declaration and supervisor's approval?

A. Table of Contents

B. Preliminary Pages

C. Main Body

D. Appendices

None

2. What is the primary function of a research design in a research proposal?

A. Data analysis

B. Data collection

C. Literature review

D. Data interpretation

None

3. What type of research design aims to establish causation through controlled experiments?

A. Descriptive

B. Correlational

C. Experimental

D. Comparative

None

4. What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes qualitative from quantitative research designs?

A. Researcher's knowledge

B. Nature of data

C. Number of respondents

D. Bias in research

None

5. Which research design is often used for investigating changes and trends over time?

A. Descriptive

B. Experimental

C. Longitudinal

D. Correlational

None

6. What is the main advantage of a cross-sectional study?

A. Provides insights into cause-and-effect relationships

B. Predicts future outcomes

C. Quick and cost-effective

D. Enables study of changes over time

None

7. Which of the following is not a component of the preliminary pages in a research proposal?

A. List of Acronyms

B. Declaration

C. Table of Contents

D. Chapter One

None

8. Which factor may influence the choice of a research design?

A. The researcher's favorite design

B. The availability of time and resources

C. The color of the researcher's office walls

D. The popularity of the design in the research community

None

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of qualitative research design?

A. Phenomenology

B. Grounded Theory

C. Experimental

D. Ethnography

None

10. How does qualitative research differ from quantitative research in terms of data collection?

A. Qualitative research relies on objective data.

B. Qualitative research relies on subjective data.

C. Qualitative research gathers numerical data.

D. Quantitative research gathers non-numerical data.

None

11. Which research design involves the study of a single subject or case in-depth?

A. Descriptive

B. Experimental

C. Grounded Theory

D. Case Study

None

12. When a population is small, sampling may not be necessary, when a researcher works with the entire population. This is known as a ____________.

13. The set of population to which the research results will be generalized is called the ____________ population.

14. A population consisting of subjects differentiated by specific identifiable features, such as age, sex, and educational background, is known as a ____________ population.

15. In an experimental research design, the group that doesn't receive any intervention(Independent variable) is referred to as the _________________ group.

Name

Time's up

Research Day 8 Read More »

Research Day 7

Welcome to your Research Day 7

September 16, 2024

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS

1. What is the primary purpose of a literature review in research?

a) To summarize research findings

b) To provide an overview of existing knowledge

c) To present original research data

d) To conduct a statistical analysis

None

2. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a literature review?

a) Identifying gaps in existing knowledge

b) Preventing plagiarism

c) Conducting original research

d) Providing a rationale for the research

None

3. What type of source provides firsthand information and data about a particular topic?

a) Secondary source

b) Tertiary source

c) Primary source

d) Main source

None

4. Which citation style is commonly used in the field of Nursing?

a) Chicago style

b) APA style

c) MLA style

d) Vancouver style

None

5. What is the purpose of referencing and citation in research?

a) To acknowledge the source

b) To make the text longer

c) To help the readers

d) To show the original source

None

6. What does paraphrasing mean in the context of research writing?

a) Copying text word-for-word

b) Quoting without citation

c) Using different words to express the same meaning

d) Rewriting someone else's work entirely

None

7. What does a secondary source provide in research?

a) Original research data

b) A summary of primary research

c) Firsthand information

d) Raw experimental results

None

8. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a literature review?

a) To summarize the entire research project

b) To identify weaknesses in existing knowledge

c) To bridge gaps in the literature

d) To provide data for future research directions

None

9. What is one way a literature review helps prevent plagiarism?

a) By using the same wording as the original source

b) By not citing any sources

c) By tailoring research to include unique insights

d) By avoiding citations altogether

None

10. What does a literature review help researchers identify in existing research?

a) The need for extensive quoting

b) Controversial viewpoints

c) The need for lengthy descriptions

d) The absence of any related research

None

11. What is the purpose of a research design in a study?

a) To summarize previous research

b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge

c) To specify the methods for data analysis

d) All of the above

None

12. Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences the choice of a research design?

a) Availability of resources

b) Researcher's familiarity with a design

c) Geographical scope of the study

d) Age of the respondents

None

13. Which type of research design focuses on describing and observing phenomena as they are?

a) Experimental

b) Descriptive

c) Correlational

d) Quasi & Comparative

None

14. What type of research design involves controlled experiments to establish causation?

a) Experimental

b) Descriptive

c) Correlational

d) Quasi & Comparative

None

15. In longitudinal research design, what is the focus of investigation?

a) Existing differences among groups

b) Changes and trends over time

c) Cause-and-effect relationships

d) None of the above

None

16. In qualitative research, the nature of data collected is ____________, relying on respondents' perspectives.

17. The research design that examines relationships between variables and can result in positive, negative, or no correlation is known as ____________ research design.

18. MLA stands for ________ style in referencing and citation.

19. A literature review can enhance researchers' confidence in their chosen topic by providing a comprehensive understanding of existing knowledge, research findings, and ________ in the literature.

20. The Good News Bible or Translated Quran is classified as a ___________ source of literature?

Name

Time's up

Research Day 7 Read More »

Research Day 6

Welcome to your Research Day 6

September 16, 2024

Attempt all numbers.

1. What is the main purpose of Chapter One in a research proposal?

a) Present research findings

b) Introduce the researcher's biography

c) Provide background and introduce the research topic

d) List references and citations

None

2. Which section of the research proposal is typically numbered in Roman Numerals?

a) References

b) Main Body

c) Preliminary Pages

d) Appendices

None

3. What is the purpose of the "Problem Statement" in Chapter One?

a) To list research questions

b) To introduce the researcher

c) To identify and explain the research issue or challenge

d) To provide literature references

None

4. What is the role of "Specific Objectives" in a research proposal?

a) They explain the background of the research topic..

b) They provide context for the study.

c) They break down the main goal into smaller, measurable components.

d) They list references and citations

None

5. In the "Justification of the Study" section, what should be outlined regarding the research?

a) Its global significance

b) Its relevance to various stakeholders

c) Its methodology and data analysis

d) Its limitations and challenges

None

6. Which section of a research proposal narrates the problem from a global to local perspective?

a) Introduction of the Chapter

b) Background of the Study

c) Problem Statement

d) Specific Objectives

None

7. What is the primary purpose of a literature review?

a. To summarize research findings

b. To promote the author's opinions

c. To identify gaps and inconsistencies

d. To entertain readers

None

8. What is the purpose of citing sources in a literature review?

a. To show off the author's knowledge

b. To support claims and avoid plagiarism

c. To increase the word count

d. To confuse readers

None

9. What does the term "et al." mean in a reference?

a. The title of the paper

b. The publication year

c. The list of authors

d. "And others" or additional authors

None

10. Which referencing/citation style is commonly used in nursing research?

a. MLA style

b. Chicago style

c. APA style

d. Turabian style

None

11. Citing sources properly is essential to avoid ____________.

12. In nursing, a minimum references to include in literature review should be ________?

Name

Time's up

Research Day 6 Read More »

Palliative Care Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Palliative Care Week 1 Exam

September 16, 2024

Attempt All Questions

Time Allowed: 2 hours

1. What is the primary focus of palliative care?

a) End-of-life care

b) Increasing life expectancy

c) Improving quality of life for serious illness

d) Providing curative treatments

None

2. When is it usually considered appropriate to provide palliative care?

a) Only in the final stages of an illness

b) Only for elderly patients

c) At any age and at any stage of a serious illness

d) Only for cancer patients

None

3. What is the primary focus of hospice care?

a) Providing curative treatments

b) Bereavement support for families

c) Caring for patients with a six-month prognosis

d) Spiritual guidance for patients

None

4. Which principle in palliative care emphasizes the importance of maintaining hope with realistic goals?

a) Appropriate ethical consideration

b) Continuum of treatment

c) Teamwork and partnership

d) Holistic care approach

None

5. What does the holistic care approach in palliative care entail?

a) Focusing solely on physical symptoms

b) Providing spiritual care only

c) Treating patients as a whole, addressing physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs

d) Prioritizing emotional support

None

6. What is the primary advantage of facility-based palliative care?

a) Reduced travel time for patients

b) Greater community involvement

c) Immediate access to healthcare professionals and specialized equipment

d) Enhanced socialization

None

7. What does the home-based palliative care model involve?

a) Providing care in a hospital or hospice facility

b) Offering palliative care services in the patient's home

c) Conducting facility day care programs

d) Focusing on outpatient care

None

8. What is the primary purpose of monitoring the respiratory rate in patients receiving morphine?

a. To measure the patient's oxygen saturation

b. To detect opioid addiction

c. To identify urinary retention

d. To assess for severe respiratory depression

None

9. Why is standardized data collection and documentation important in palliative care?

a) To limit access to palliative care services

b) To assess the impact of palliative care programs

c) To reduce patient preferences

d) To increase medication availability

None

10. Which type of communication involves the exchange of ideas through spoken expression in words?

a) Verbal communication

b) Non-verbal communication

c) Closed-ended communication

d) Reflective communication

None

11. What does the "ROLES" acronym stand for in relation to body language indicating active listening?

a) Relaxed, Open, Lean, Empathetic, Summarized

b) Respected, Organized, Limited, Encouraging, Structured

c) Relaxed, Open, Lean, Eye contact, Sit near

d) Reflective, Optimistic, Linguistic, Energetic, Supportive

None

12. When asking questions in palliative care, what is the primary purpose of open-ended questions?

a) To gather specific facts and details

b) To structure the conversation

c) To encourage the patient to express feelings and opinions

d) To provide clear instructions to the patient

None

13. In pediatric palliative care, what is a key principle for answering difficult questions from children?

a) Avoid discussing difficult topics with children

b) Build trust and rapport before addressing sensitive topics

c) Provide complex medical explanations

d) Minimize the child's involvement in decision-making

None

14. What technique involves warning, pausing, checking, and chunking when addressing difficult questions with children?

a) Tactful questioning

b) WPC Chunk Technique

c) Closed-ended questioning

d) Non-verbal communication

None

15. What is the most common and feared symptom among those nearing the end of life?

a) Nausea and vomiting

b) Fatigue

c) Pain

d) Depression

None

16. In the pathophysiology of pain, nociceptors are specialized cells that act like bodyguards stationed throughout the body. What is their role?

a) Transmit pain signals to the brain

b) Block pain signals at the spinal cord

c) Detect potential harm and activate when necessary

d) Trigger emotional responses to pain

None

17. Which type of pain involves damage to the peripheral nerves and is often described as burning, shooting, or electrical-like sensations?

a) Somatic pain

b) Central pain

c) Neuropathic pain

d) Visceral pain

None

18. Which type of pain originates from the central nervous system and can result from conditions like stroke or spinal cord injury?

a) Neuropathic pain

b) Somatic pain

c) Visceral pain

d) Central pain

None

19. Which type of pain involves pain originating from organs and is often described as crampy, nagging, or dull?

a) Visceral pain

b) Somatic pain

c) Central pain

d) Peripheral pain

None

20. Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of total pain?

a) Physical

b) Psychological

c) Social

d) Medical

None

21. What does the FLACC Pain Scale assess primarily?

a) Self-reported pain intensity

b) Pain location on a body chart

c) Pain-related behaviors in non-communicative individuals

d) Pain duration and changes over time

None

22. What is the first step in the WHO Analgesic Ladder for pain management?

a. Strong opioids

b. Weak opioids

c. Non-opioids

d. Adjuvant medications

None

23. Which principle of effective pain management emphasizes administering analgesics at regular intervals and titrating the dose against pain?

a. By the mouth

b. By the clock

c. By the ladder

d. By the patient

None

24. Which adjuvant medication is commonly used for neuropathic pain in palliative care?

a. Tramadol

b. Gabapentin

c. Codeine

d. Ibuprofen

None

25. What is the maximum daily dose of paracetamol recommended for adults?

a. 1 gram

b. 2 grams

c. 3 grams

d. 4 grams

None

26. Which pharmacological agent is primarily used to manage bone pain in palliative care?

a. Gabapentin

b. Morphine

c. Bisphosphonates

d. Codeine

None

27. What should be done with expired or rejected class A drugs like morphine?

a. They should be sold to patients at a discount.

b. They should be disposed of following WHO guidelines.

c. They can be used for educational purposes.

d. They should be given to other healthcare providers.

None

28. What is breakthrough pain in the relation of pain management?

A) A pain intensity level below the patient's tolerance threshold.

B) A sudden, severe flare-up of pain that occurs despite ongoing pain management.

C) Pain that can be relieved with over-the-counter pain relievers.

D) Chronic pain that gradually worsens over time.

None

29. What is the purpose of a breakthrough dose in pain management?

A) To replace the patient's regular pain medication.

B) To serve as the primary pain relief method.

C) To provide extra pain relief during episodes of sudden, severe pain.

D) To reduce the need for any pain medication.

None

30. Free mark? Okay, but do you know Procedural pain?

Yes, Pain related to procedures

I think yes! Procedural is to procedure, huh!

None

31. Palliative care focuses on improving the ________ of life for people with serious illness?

32. Palliative care begins from the time of ________ and extends beyond the patient's passing.

33. In palliative care, communication is considered complete when there is ____________.

34. When addressing difficult questions in children's palliative care, the "WPC Chunk Technique" involves the components: Warn, Pause, ____________, and Chunk.

35. Regular _______________ are needed in all patients who receive opiates to prevent constipation.

36. ___________ involves inserting thin needles at specific points on the body to stimulate energy flow and reduce pain.

37. In cases of severe respiratory depression, the opioid receptor antagonist __________ can be used as an antidote.

38. When assessing pain using the PQRST tool, the "Q" stands for __________ factors that may trigger or worsen the pain.

39. The Faces Pain Scale, also known as the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, uses __________ cartoon faces to depict different pain levels.

40. Children are unable to process or remember pain according to the myths about pain in children.

True

False

None

Name

Time's up

Palliative Care Week 1 Exam Read More »

Palliative Care Day 4

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 4

September 16, 2024

Attempt all questions

Time Allowed: 20 min

1. According to the WHO, what should be considered a Basic Human Right?

a) Freedom from cancer pain

b) Freedom from all pain

c) Freedom from any discomfort

d) Freedom from minor aches

None

2. Which principle of effective pain management emphasizes giving treatment orally when possible?

a) By the ladder

b) By the clock

c) By the mouth

d) By the patient

None

3. For persistent pain, what is recommended regarding the dosages of analgesics?

a) Give analgesics only when the pain is severe.

b) Give analgesics sporadically.

c) Give analgesics at regular intervals.

d) Give analgesics only before bedtime.

None

4. Which principle suggests that dosages of analgesics should be titrated against pain?

a) By the ladder

b) By the patient

c) By the mouth

d) By the clock

None

5. When managing bone pain that is semi-responsive to opiates, what additional medication may be considered?

a) Steroid

b) Muscle relaxant

c) Anticonvulsant

d) NSAID

None

6. What type of pain may require the use of tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline?

a) Muscle pain

b) Bone pain

c) Neuropathic pain

d) Inflammatory pain

None

7. Which of the following should be used as adjuvants to manage pain effectively?

a) Steroids

b) Opioids alone

c) NSAIDs alone

d) Paracetamol plus Diclofenac

None

8. What practice involves inserting thin needles at specific points on the body to stimulate energy flow and reduce pain?

a) Massage Therapy

b) Yoga

c) Acupuncture

d) Meditation

None

9. Which medication class may be prescribed to manage anxiety and muscle tension, which can exacerbate pain perception in some patients?

a) Antipsychotics

b) Benzodiazepines

c) Antidepressants

d) Antispasmodic Agents

None

10. What is the cornerstone of pain management in palliative care?

a) Adjuvant Medications

b) Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

c) Opioid Analgesics

d) Local Anesthetics

None

11. What is the purpose of a black box warning for prescription drugs?

a) To promote the drug's sales

b) To alert healthcare providers and patients about serious potential risks

c) To indicate the drug's expiration date

d) To highlight the drug's affordability

None

12. What is the recommended action for preventing further absorption of morphine in cases of overdose?

a) Administer a narcotic antagonist

b) Use activated charcoal

c) Provide laxatives

d) Administer corticosteroids

None

13. Which medication is mentioned as an example of an adjuvant medication used in pain management?

a) Morphine

b) Naloxone

c) Amitriptyline

d) Hyoscine butylbromide

None

14. What is the recommended action for preventing diversion of class A drugs?

a) Keeping them in open access areas

b) Storing them in a secure, double-locked cupboard

c) Sharing them with other healthcare facilities

d) Disposing of them in public waste bins

None

15. What is the primary purpose of Bisphosphonates in medical treatment?

a) Managing pain associated with nerve damage

b) Managing pain associated with bone metastases.

c) Managing pain associated with gastrointestinal issues

d) Managing pain associated with migraine headaches

None

16. Corticosteroids are useful for pain caused by tumor pressure and __________.

17. Only registered medical doctors, dentists, specialized palliative care nurses, clinical officers, and midwives are allowed to prescribe __________ drugs.(which class of drugs)

18. A __________ may be administered to promote bowel movement and eliminate morphine from the digestive system in cases of overdose.

19. __________ is an opioid receptor antagonist that can reverse the effects of morphine overdose when administered intravenously (IV).

20. Liquid morphine is available in different concentrations, including weak (green), strong (red), and very strong (blue) with concentrations of __________ mg/5ml. (Give for green concentration)

Name

Time's up

Palliative Care Day 4 Read More »

Palliative Care Day 3

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 3

September 16, 2024

Attempt All Numbers

Time Allowed : 25 mininutes

1. What is pain?

A. An objective sensation

B. A subjective experience

C. A type of injury

D. An emotional response

None

2. What are nociceptors?

A. Specialized cells that transmit pain signals

B. Pain-relieving medications

C. Emotional responses to pain

D. Chronic pain conditions

None

3. In which type of pain does the pain intensity often exceed the observable injury?

A. Nociceptive pain

B. Somatic pain

C. Visceral pain

D. Neuropathic pain

None

4. Which type of pain involves tissue injury to skin, muscle, or bone?

A. Somatic pain

B. Visceral pain

C. Central pain

D. Peripheral pain

None

5. Which symptom is most common among patients nearing the end of life?

A. Fatigue

B. Nausea

C. Pain

D. Shortness of breath

None

6. Which of the following is an example of neuropathic pain?

A. A headache caused by tension

B. Toothache due to a cavity

C. Burning sensations in the hands and feet

D. Muscle soreness after exercise

None

7. Which of the following statements about acute pain is true?

A. It lasts for an extended period, often years.

B. It is associated with chronic medical conditions.

C. It typically results from surgical procedures or injuries.

D. It responds poorly to pain medications.

None

8. What is the primary role of nociceptors in the pain process?

A. Transmitting emotional responses to pain

B. Blocking pain signals in the spinal cord

C. Detecting and transmitting pain signals

D. Initiating healing and recovery mechanisms

None

9. Pain assessment in children is complex due to differences in their communication abilities and understanding. Which of the following is a common myth about pain in children that healthcare providers should be aware of?

a) Newborns do not feel pain

b) Children of all ages can experience and remember pain

c) Children always communicate when they have pain

d) Pain tolerance generally decreases with age

None

10. Which of the following pain assessment tools uses a gesture to represent the level of pain, with a clenched hand indicating no pain or "no hurt" and fully extended fingers representing the worst possible pain or "hurts worst"?

a) Numerical Rating Scale

b) Hand Pain Scale

c) Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale

d) FLACC Pain Scale

None

11. The FLACC Pain Scale is primarily based on:

a) Self-reporting by the patient

b) Behavioral observations by a healthcare provider

c) Pain rating using a numerical scale

d) Pain duration and frequency

None

12. When using the Numerical Rating Scale for pain assessment, which number on the scale typically represents the worst pain imaginable?

a) 0

b) 5

c) 10

d) 15

None

13. According to the WHO, what should be considered a Basic Human Right?

a) Freedom from cancer pain

b) Freedom from all pain

c) Freedom from any discomfort

d) Freedom from minor aches

None

14. Which principle of effective pain management emphasizes giving treatment orally when possible?

a) By the ladder

b) By the clock

c) By the mouth

d) By the patient

None

15. Which of the following should be used as adjuvants to manage pain effectively?

a) Steroids

b) Opioids alone

c) NSAIDs alone

d) Paracetamol plus Diclofenac

None

16. The detection of pain begins with specialized cells called ___________.

17. Nociceptive pain involves the activation of intact Nerve pathways and is a normal response to a ___________.

18. The Faces Pain Scale, also known as the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, consists of ________________ cartoon faces, each depicting a different expression.(how many faces)

19. A __________ may be administered to promote bowel movement and eliminate morphine from the digestive system in cases of overdose.

20. Only registered medical doctors, dentists, specialized palliative care nurses, clinical officers, and midwives are allowed to prescribe __________ drugs.(which class of drugs)

Name

Time's up

Palliative Care Day 3 Read More »

Palliative Care Day 2

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 2

September 16, 2024

Time Allowed: 20 mins

1. What is the primary goal of communication in palliative care?

a. To provide medical advice

b. To reduce uncertainties and clarify issues

c. To entertain patients

d. To impose personal values

None

2. Which type of communication entails using spoken words, such as talking face-to-face or on a telephone?

a. Verbal communication

b. Non-verbal communication

c. Closed-ended communication

d. Open-ended communication

None

3. Which major skill in communication involves asking questions to help patients explore their problems more fully?

a. Listening

b. Checking understanding

c. Asking questions

d. Answering questions

None

4. What is the primary purpose of checking understanding during a conversation?

a. To test the patient's knowledge

b. To confirm the caregiver's understanding

c. To assess the patient's memory

d. To ensure effective communication

None

5. What type of questions invite a person to talk and explain, often beginning with words like "What" or "How"?

a. Closed-ended questions

b. Open-ended questions

c. Reflective questions

d. Tactful questions

None

6. What is the primary goal of communication in pediatric palliative care?

a. To entertain children

b. To reduce pain in children

c. To establish meaningful relationships with children

d. To disclose diagnoses and ensure treatment adherence

None

7. When answering difficult questions in pediatric palliative care, which technique involves warning the child before sharing potentially challenging information?

a. WPC Chunk Technique

b. Reflective Technique

c. Questioning Technique

d. Tactful Technique

None

8. In pediatric palliative care, what is the significance of age-appropriate communication?

a. It promotes adherence to treatment.

b. It reduces communication barriers.

c. It aligns with the child's developmental stage.

d. It enhances cultural respect.

None

9. What is the primary purpose of using open-ended questions in communication?

a. To gather factual information

b. To encourage patients to express their thoughts and feelings

c. To test the patient's knowledge

d. To limit the patient's responses

None

10. What factor may hinder communication in palliative care by causing patients to choose not to disclose important information?

a. Transportation barriers

b. Resource constraints

c. Stigma and misconceptions

d. Impairments

None

11. To check your understanding of what someone has said, you can:

A. Ask clarifying questions.

B. Summarize what they have said in your own words.

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above.

None

12. The following are indicators of paying attention during communication Except;

A. Relax

B. Lean forward

C. Sit near

D. Ask questions

None

13. Which technique involves using body language to show that you are paying attention while communicating with patients?

a. Reflecting

b. Summarizing

c. Paraphrasing

d. ROLES technique

None

14. Why is maintaining confidentiality important when communicating in palliative care?

a. To gossip about patients' conditions

b. To build trust with patients and their families

c. To share patients' information with the public

d. To avoid answering patients' questions

None

15. What is a potential consequence of poor communication in palliative care?

a. Increased trust between patients and healthcare professionals

b. Enhanced patient care and satisfaction

c. Mistrust and a source of staff stress

d. Improved planning for the future

None

16. Facility outreach programs bring the services nearer to the people, so patients do not have to walk long distances and can be seen within their villages.

True

False

None

17. Home based palliative care model involves the delivery of a comprehensive package of care to the patient and the family in the community.

True

False

None

18. Roadside clinics/stopovers aren't a convenient way for patients to access palliative care without having to travel long distances.

True

False

None

19. Hospice care is a type of palliative care that is provided to patients who are terminally ill.

True

False

None

20. Communication is considered complete only when there is _______?

Name

Time's up

Palliative Care Day 2 Read More »

Palliative Care Day 1

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 1

Attempt all Questions

Time Allowed: 20 min

September 16, 2024

1. What is the primary goal of palliative care?

A. Cure the disease

B. Improve the quality of life

C. Provide emotional support

D. Reduce healthcare costs

None

2. When does palliative care typically start?

A. Only in the late stages of the illness

B. At the time of diagnosis

C. After all curative treatments have failed

D. Only during the patient's bereavement

None

3. What is the primary focus of hospice care?

A. Providing curative treatments

B. Enhancing the remaining days of life

C. Treating pain and symptoms

D. Offering emotional support only

None

4. Which of the following diseases is NOT a condition that may require palliative care?

A. Cancer

B. HIV/AIDS

C. Kidney failure

D. Dementia

None

5. Which component of holistic care emphasizes the assessment and management of pain and physical symptoms?

A. Psychological care

B. Spiritual care

C. Physical care

D. Social care

None

6. Which of the following is NOT an aim of palliative care?

A. Fasten death of a patient.

B. Provide pain and symptom relief.

C. Affirms life and regards dying as normal

D. Offers individual care to patients and care takers.

None

7. What are the two essential components of palliative care?

a) Pain and symptom control

b) Surgical procedures and medications

c) Inpatient care and outpatient care

d) Physical therapy and dietary management

None

8. Which principle of palliative care emphasizes maintaining hope with realistic goals?

a) Ethical consideration

b) Patient-centered care

c) Continuum of treatment

d) Holistic care approach

None

9. What does the "community day care" model of palliative care involve?

a) Providing care exclusively in hospitals

b) Offering care only to patients in urban areas

c) Delivering care within the patient's community

d) Focusing on outpatient care in health centers

None

10. In which model of palliative care is care provided at identified places along the route to an outreach?

a. Health facilities based

b. Health facility Out-reach programs

c. Roadside clinics/stopovers

d. Facility day care

None

11. Palliative care is NOT end of life care.

True

False

None

12. Dame Cicely Saunders is known for founding the "Hospice Movement" in 1918

True

False

None

13. Hospice care is just a building; it is considered a philosophy of care emphasizing comprehensive support for patients.

True

False

None

14. The interdisciplinary team in palliative care may include doctors, nurses, social workers, religious leaders, teachers, and community health providers, among others.

True

False

None

15. Roadside clinics and stopovers are models of palliative care designed to provide care to patients who live far away from healthcare facilities.

True

False

None

16. Geographic accessibility, resource availability, and patient preference are not factors that influence the choice of a palliative care model in Uganda.

True

False

None

17. Stigma and misconceptions surrounding palliative care can discourage patients and families from seeking or accepting palliative care services, even though it is not synonymous with end of life care.

True

False

None

18. Community day care models cannot depend on community resources and volunteers to function effectively.

True

False

None

19. Holistic care in palliative care includes addressing physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs.

True

False

None

20. Bereavement support is an important component of palliative care and helps family members cope with grief and loss.

True

False

None

Name

Time's up

Palliative Care Day 1 Read More »

Teaching Methodology Week One Exam

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Week One Exam

Attempt all Questions

Do Not ReDO the paper unless you are told to do so.

Time allowed: 1:30 mins.

1. What is the primary focus of Teaching Methodology?

a) The study of nurses' daily routines

b) The study of different methods used in the teaching-learning process

c) The study of patient care techniques

d) The study of medical equipment

None

2. Which process involves acquiring new knowledge, skills, and attitudes, resulting in a change in behavior?

a) Teaching

b) Training

c) Learning

d) Education

None

3. Which term refers to the phases of teaching and learning, including assessing learning needs, establishing learning objectives, and evaluating outcomes?

a) Teaching Process

b) Learning Process

c) Instruction Process

d) Assessment Process

None

4. Which of the following is NOT considered a teaching strategy?

a) Lectures

b) Discussions

c) Group work

d) Prescription of medications

None

5. Which type of learning occurs away from a structured, formal environment and includes self-directed learning or experiences like observing and field trips?

a) Formal learning

b) Informal learning

c) Non-formal learning

d) Extracurricular learning

None

6. What is does the motivation phase in the phases of learning mean?

a) Acquisition of new information

b) Transfer of information to new situations

c) Expectation that learning will be rewarding

d) Recall of previously learned information

None

7. Which motivation theory emphasizes the importance of not teaching too hard or too easy in motivating individuals?

a) Arousal Theory

b) Expectancy Theory

c) Self-Determination Theory

d) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

None

8. What is the phase of learning that involves the transfer of newly acquired information from short-term to long-term memory?

a) Motivation phase

b) Acquisition phase

c) Retention phase

d) Recall phase

None

9. What is the primary reason why some learners may lack motivation to learn?

a) Lack of recognition and feedback

b) Fear of success

c) Fear of making mistakes

d) Lack of discipline

None

10. What is the primary role of the principle of motivation in teaching?

a) To provide well-defined objectives

b) To make students comfortable in the presence of a teacher

c) To inspire students and develop a positive attitude towards the subject

d) To keep students as passive learners

None

11. Which principle suggests that teaching should respect the individuality of students and consider each student as unique?

a) Principle of activity

b) Principle of selection

c) Principle of individual difference

d) Principle of division

None

12. Which maxim of teaching suggests that new lessons should be related to what is already known to the students?

a) Proceed from simple to complex

b) Proceed from concrete to abstract

c) Proceed from known to unknown

d) Proceed from particular to general

None

13. Which philosophy of education emphasizes that knowledge acquired through the senses is true?

a) Idealism

b) Realism

c) Naturalism

d) Pragmatism

None

14. What is the key concept of pragmatism in education?

a) Learning by doing

b) Focusing on abstract concepts

c) Classical philosophy

d) Idealistic principles

None

15. In idealism, what is considered the controller and explainer of phenomena?

a) The physical world

b) Concrete objects

c) The mind or spirit

d) Sensory perception

None

16. According to realism, what is considered true knowledge?

a) Knowledge acquired through the senses

b) Knowledge acquired through intuition

c) Knowledge acquired through imagination

d) Knowledge acquired through authority

None

17. Which major type of conditioning involves the association between a behavior and a consequence of reward or punishment?

a) Classical conditioning

b) Operant conditioning

c) Social conditioning

d) Environmental conditioning

None

18. What did B.F. Skinner primarily focus on in behaviorism?

a) Internal thoughts and motivations

b) Observing internal mental states

c) External, observable causes of behavior

d) Emotional experiences

None

19. What is the process of fitting new information into existing knowledge structures called in constructivism?

a) Accommodation

b) Reconstruction

c) Assimilation

d) Adaptation

None

20. In constructivism, what process involves changing existing knowledge structures to accommodate new information?

a) Assimilation

b) Adaptation

c) Reframing

d) Accommodation

None

21. What is one of the key characteristics of adult learners?

a) Dependence on the instructor

b) Lack of life experiences

c) Self-direction in learning

d) Readiness to learn

None

22. Which principle of andragogy emphasizes that adults prefer learning that is immediately applicable to their situation?

a) Self-directed learning

b) Building on experience

c) Readiness to learn

d) Pragmatic learning

None

23. What does the SMART acronym stand for in the context of educational objectives?

a) Student Mastery and Assessment for Realistic Targets

b) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound

c) Subject Matter and Real-world Training

d) Sequential Measures and Assessment Tools

None

24. What is the primary purpose of educational objectives?

a) To evaluate teacher performance

b) To communicate to colleagues

c) To inform students about teaching methods

d) To describe desired changes in student behavior

None

25. Which domain of learning deals with emotional and social aspects, including attitudes, values, interests, and motivation?

a) Cognitive Domain

b) Affective Domain

c) Psychomotor Domain

d) Analytical Domain

None

26. What does Bloom's Taxonomy classify educational objectives into?

a) Four major domains

b) Two major domains

c) Three major domains

d) Five major domains

None

27. Which type of educational objectives are specific, precise, and measurable and correspond to each specific teaching-learning activity?

a) Institutional Objectives

b) Departmental Objectives

c) General Objectives

d) Instructional Objectives

None

28. Which of the following represents an objective in the Affective Domain?

a) Solving complex mathematical equations

b) Expressing empathy towards patients in a healthcare setting

c) Learning to play a musical instrument

d) Demonstrating physical fitness through exercise

None

29. An educational objective has the following parts EXCEPT:

a) Behaviour

b) Condition

c) Criteria

d) Action

None

30. Great job for reaching this far, how about a free mark?

Yes, that would be nice.

Nope, i toil for my own marks.

None

31. What does the term "-Ology" in Teaching Methodology mean?

32. According to the principles of teaching and learning, teaching should aim at having students ________ and not passive.

33. In constructivism, the process of changing existing knowledge structures to accommodate new information is called ___________.

34. The SMART criteria help in creating well-defined and effective educational objectives: Specific, Measurable, Achievable, __________, and Time-bound.

34. Which type of punishment under constructivism do parents punish there children to get rid of bad behaviour?

35. The last Phase in the phases of learning is?

36. The domain that uses muscular skeletal structures in acquiring skills is ?

37. The domain that deals with intellectual skills is?

38. The teaching method that engages a student in real life setting is?

39. In Bloom's Taxonomy, the domain that focuses on attitudes, values, and interests is?

40. Maxims of teaching are also known as codes of __________?

Name

Time's up

Teaching Methodology Week One Exam Read More »

Teaching Methodology Day 4 Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 4 Quiz

10 MCQ's

Which of the following is a quality of a good objective?

A. Vague and unclear

B. Ambiguous and confusing

C. Specific and measurable

D. Lengthy and complicated

None

Which domain of educational objectives deals with physical skills and movements?

A. Cognitive domain

B. Affective domain

C. Psychomotor domain

D. Emotional domain

None

What is the primary focus of the cognitive domain of educational objectives?

A. Emotions and values

B. Physical skills

C. Intellectual abilities and knowledge

D. Social interactions

None

What does the affective domain of educational objectives include?

A. Physical skills

B. Attitudes and values

C. Intellectual abilities

D. Social interactions

None

What do teaching methods refer to?

A. The teacher's competence

B. The students' competence

C. The orderly procedures used by the teacher

D. The educational objectives

None

What do you understand by learning activities in teaching methods?

A. Teacher evaluations

B. Things students do during the lesson

C. Written exams

D. Teacher lectures

None

Which teaching method is best suited for larger groups of students?

A. Discussion

B. Role-playing

C. Lecture

D. Demonstration

None

Which of the following best describes teaching strategies?

A. Methods for classroom management

B. Techniques to entertain students

C. Approaches to help students learn course content and set achievable goals

D. Rules for student discipline

None

What do instructional objectives focus on?

A) Broad institutional goals

B) Specific teaching methods

C) Desired student learning outcomes

D) Departmental objectives

None

Which type of objective is usually broad in focus and aligns with the institution's goals?

A) Instructional objective

B) Departmental objective

C) Institutional objective

D) Behavioral objective

None

Name

Time's up

Teaching Methodology Day 4 Quiz Read More »