Surgical Nursing III and Paediatric Nursing II

DNE 113: Surgical Nursing III and Paediatric Nursing II - Dec 2019

Table of Contents

UGANDA NURSES AND MIDWIVES EXAMINATIONS BOARD

YEAR 1: SEMESTER 1: EXAMINATIONS

DIPLOMA IN NURSING EXTENSION

Paper: Surgical Nursing III and Paediatric Nursing II

Paper Code: DNE 113

Date: December 2019

Duration: 3 HOURS

IMPORTANT:

  1. Write your examination number on the question paper and answer sheets.
  2. Read the questions carefully and answer only what has been asked in the question.
  3. Answer all the questions.
  4. The paper has three sections.

Nurses Revision

https://www.nursesrevisionuganda.com

SECTION A: Objective Questions (20 marks)

🦴1. The commonest type of fracture found in children below 16 months is?

  • (a) Impacted.
  • (b) Commuted.
  • (c) Compound.
  • (d) Greenstick.

Correct Answer: (d) Greenstick.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🌿A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture where the bone is bent and partially broken, much like a young, green twig breaks. This type of fracture is common in young children because their bones are softer, more flexible, and less brittle than adult bones. The periosteum (the outer lining of the bone) in children is also thicker and stronger, which often prevents the bone from breaking completely through.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Impacted fracture: This occurs when the broken ends of the bone are jammed together by the force of the injury. While possible in children, it's not the *commonest* type specifically highlighted for this young age group like greenstick fractures are.
  • (b) Commuted fracture: This is a fracture where the bone is broken into three or more pieces. These are usually caused by high-impact trauma and are less common than greenstick fractures in very young children.
  • (c) Compound fracture (Open fracture): This is a fracture where the broken bone pierces the skin, creating an open wound. While serious, it's not defined by the *way* the bone breaks (like greenstick) but by its communication with the outside environment. It's not the *commonest type* of break pattern in this age group.

🦠Which of the following is the commonest site of osteomyelitis in children?

  • (a) Bone shaft.
  • (b) Epiphyses.
  • (c) Ridges.
  • (d) Proximal extremites.

Correct Answer: (d) Proximal extremites.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🦵Osteomyelitis in children most commonly affects the metaphysis of long bones. The metaphysis is the growing part of a long bone between the diaphysis (shaft) and the epiphysis (end). Long bones like the femur (thigh bone), tibia (shin bone), and humerus (upper arm bone) are frequently involved. These are major bones of the "proximal extremities" (referring to the limbs and specifically their long bones). The rich blood supply in the metaphyseal region of these bones makes them susceptible to hematogenous (blood-borne) spread of infection. So, "Proximal extremities" best encompasses these common locations.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Bone shaft (Diaphysis): While osteomyelitis can occur in the diaphysis, the metaphysis is more commonly the initial site of infection in children due to its unique vascular structure.
  • (b) Epiphyses: The epiphyses (ends of the long bones beyond the growth plate) can be affected, especially in neonates where blood vessels cross the growth plate, or if infection spreads from the metaphysis. However, the metaphysis is generally considered the primary site.
  • (c) Ridges: "Ridges" is not a standard anatomical term used to describe a common primary site for osteomyelitis. Osteomyelitis affects specific parts of bones like the metaphysis, diaphysis, or epiphysis.

👶The most important nursing consideration when managing a child with osteogenesis imperfecta is to

  • (a) educate care takers of diet.
  • (b) ensure early treatment.
  • (c) handle the child carefully.
  • (d) prepare the child for surgery.

Correct Answer: (c) handle the child carefully.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

GENTLEOsteogenesis imperfecta (OI), also known as brittle bone disease, is a genetic disorder characterized by fragile bones that fracture easily. Therefore, the utmost priority and most important nursing consideration is to handle the child with extreme care and gentleness to prevent fractures. This includes careful positioning, lifting, dressing, and diapering.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) educate care takers of diet: While nutrition (e.g., adequate calcium and vitamin D) is important for bone health in general and is part of OI management, preventing iatrogenic fractures through careful handling is the most immediate and critical nursing consideration to prevent harm.
  • (b) ensure early treatment: Early diagnosis and a comprehensive treatment plan (which may include medication like bisphosphonates, physical therapy, etc.) are vital for managing OI. However, "handling carefully" is a direct, ongoing nursing action critical in every interaction.
  • (d) prepare the child for surgery: Surgical interventions, such as rodding (inserting metal rods into long bones to provide support and prevent fractures/correct deformities), may be necessary for some children with OI. However, not all children require surgery, and careful handling is universally crucial for all children with OI at all times, not just in preparation for surgery.

💨Which of the following is NOT a sign of airway obstruction?

  • (a) Chest indrawing.
  • (b) Wheezing.
  • (c) Convulsion.
  • (d) Anxiety.

Correct Answer: (c) Convulsion.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🧠A convulsion (seizure) is primarily a neurological event characterized by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. While severe and prolonged airway obstruction can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels), which in turn *could* eventually trigger a convulsion, a convulsion itself is not a direct sign *of* airway obstruction. The other signs listed are direct manifestations of difficulty breathing due to a blocked airway.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Chest indrawing (Retractions): This occurs when the soft tissues of the chest (e.g., between the ribs, above the clavicles, or below the sternum) are sucked inward during inspiration. It indicates increased effort of breathing because the airway is obstructed, and the person is working harder to pull air in.
  • (b) Wheezing: This is a high-pitched whistling sound made during breathing, usually on exhalation, but can also be on inhalation. It's caused by narrowed airways, which is a form of airway obstruction (e.g., in asthma, bronchiolitis, or due to a foreign body).
  • (d) Anxiety: Difficulty breathing (dyspnea) due to airway obstruction is frightening and physically distressing, leading to anxiety, restlessness, and agitation as the body struggles for oxygen.

⚕️Which of the following is NOT a principle indication for tracheostomy?

  • (a) Respiratory failure.
  • (b) Cardiac arrest.
  • (c) Airway obstruction.
  • (d) Assisted respiration.

Correct Answer: (b) Cardiac arrest.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

❤️Cardiac arrest is the sudden cessation of heart function. The immediate priority in cardiac arrest is cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), which includes chest compressions and rescue breathing (often via bag-mask ventilation or endotracheal intubation if advanced airway is needed quickly). A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the neck into the trachea; it is not an emergency procedure for initiating airway management during an acute cardiac arrest. While a patient who has been resuscitated from cardiac arrest might later require a tracheostomy if they need prolonged mechanical ventilation, the cardiac arrest itself is not a primary indication for performing an immediate tracheostomy.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Respiratory failure: This is a condition where the respiratory system fails to maintain adequate gas exchange. Patients with respiratory failure often require mechanical ventilation, and if this is prolonged, a tracheostomy may be indicated to facilitate long-term airway management, reduce ventilator-associated complications, and improve comfort.
  • (c) Airway obstruction: Upper airway obstruction (e.g., due to tumors, severe trauma, swelling, or congenital anomalies) that cannot be relieved by other means (like intubation) is a key indication for tracheostomy to bypass the obstruction and secure the airway.
  • (d) Assisted respiration (Prolonged mechanical ventilation): When a patient requires long-term assisted respiration via mechanical ventilation (typically more than 1-2 weeks via an endotracheal tube), a tracheostomy is often performed. It is more comfortable for the patient, allows for easier oral hygiene, may reduce the work of breathing, and facilitates weaning from the ventilator.

🗣️The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with productive cough would be

  • (a) altered nutrition less than body requirements.
  • (b) impaired gaseous exchange.
  • (c) ineffective airway clearance.
  • (d) ineffective breathing pattern.

Correct Answer: (c) ineffective airway clearance.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🤧A productive cough means the child is coughing up mucus or sputum. The nursing diagnosis "Ineffective Airway Clearance" is defined as the inability to clear secretions or obstructions from the respiratory tract to maintain a clear airway. A productive cough is a direct sign that the child is attempting to clear secretions, and if these secretions are difficult to expel or are excessive, their airway clearance is ineffective.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) altered nutrition less than body requirements: While a child who is unwell with a cough might have a poor appetite leading to nutritional issues, the productive cough itself directly points to an airway clearance problem, not primarily a nutritional one.
  • (b) impaired gaseous exchange: This diagnosis relates to problems with oxygen getting into the blood and carbon dioxide getting out at the alveolar-capillary level. While excessive secretions retained due to ineffective airway clearance *can* lead to impaired gas exchange (e.g., if airways are blocked), the primary problem indicated by a productive cough is the difficulty clearing the airways themselves.
  • (d) ineffective breathing pattern: This refers to changes in the rate, rhythm, timing, or depth of breathing (e.g., too fast, too slow, too shallow). While a child with a respiratory infection might have an altered breathing pattern, the *productive* nature of the cough specifically highlights the issue of clearing secretions.

❤️7. Which of the following is a congenital heart defect NOT found in tetralogy of Fallot?

  • (a) Right ventricular hypertrophy.
  • (b) Overriding of the aorta.
  • (c) Ventricular septal defect.
  • (d) Aortic stenosis.

Correct Answer: (d) Aortic stenosis.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💔Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a complex congenital heart defect characterized by four specific abnormalities (though the name means "four," the core defects are usually listed as):

  1. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) - a hole between the ventricles.
  2. Pulmonary Stenosis (or right ventricular outflow tract obstruction) - narrowing of the passage from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery.
  3. Overriding Aorta - the aorta is positioned over the VSD, receiving blood from both ventricles.
  4. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy - thickening of the muscle of the right ventricle, due to the increased workload from pumping against the pulmonary stenosis.
Aortic stenosis (narrowing of the aortic valve) is NOT one of the four characteristic defects of Tetralogy of Fallot. Instead, TOF involves pulmonary stenosis.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Right ventricular hypertrophy: This is a classic feature of TOF, developing because the right ventricle has to pump harder to get blood past the narrowed pulmonary valve/outflow tract.
  • (b) Overriding of the aorta: This is a key component of TOF, where the aorta is displaced to the right and sits over the ventricular septal defect.
  • (c) Ventricular septal defect (VSD): A VSD is one of the defining malformations in TOF, allowing oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle to mix with oxygen-rich blood in the left ventricle.

👶8. Which of the following poses the greatest risks of HIV infection in infants?

  • (a) Expressed breast milk.
  • (b) Mixed feeding.
  • (c) Exclusive breast feeding.
  • (d) Formula feeding.

Correct Answer: (b) Mixed feeding.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🍼For infants born to HIV-positive mothers, mixed feeding (giving both breast milk and other foods/liquids like formula, water, or solids before 6 months) has been shown to pose a higher risk of HIV transmission compared to exclusive breastfeeding or exclusive formula feeding. The theory is that other foods can disrupt the delicate lining of the baby's gut, making it more permeable and susceptible to HIV entry if the mother is breastfeeding. Current WHO guidelines recommend that HIV-positive mothers should exclusively breastfeed for the first 6 months unless replacement feeding (exclusive formula feeding) is Acceptable, Feasible, Affordable, Sustainable, and Safe (AFASS). If these AFASS criteria are met, then exclusive formula feeding is recommended. Mixed feeding should be avoided.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Expressed breast milk: If the mother is HIV positive, her breast milk contains the virus. Expressed breast milk carries the same risk as direct breastfeeding if not heat-treated (which can inactivate the virus but is not always feasible or done correctly). However, the question is about the *feeding method* posing the greatest risk, and mixed feeding is particularly problematic.
  • (c) Exclusive breast feeding: While there is a risk of HIV transmission through breastfeeding from an HIV-positive mother (especially if she is not on antiretroviral therapy - ART), exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months is generally considered safer than mixed feeding. With maternal ART, the risk of transmission via exclusive breastfeeding is significantly reduced.
  • (d) Formula feeding: Exclusive formula feeding (replacement feeding) eliminates the risk of postnatal HIV transmission from mother to child through breast milk, provided it is prepared and given safely (AFASS criteria). It carries no risk of HIV transmission from the mother's milk.

👁️Purulent discharge from the eyes of a new born baby within 21 days of birth is due to

  • (a) opthalmia neonatorum.
  • (b) acute conjunctivitis.
  • (c) retinitis.
  • (d) glaucoma.

Correct Answer: (a) opthalmia neonatorum.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💧Ophthalmia neonatorum is defined as conjunctivitis (inflammation of the conjunctiva) occurring in a newborn baby, typically within the first month of life (the 21-day timeframe fits this). It is often characterized by purulent (pus-like) discharge. Common causes include bacterial infections like Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis acquired from the mother during birth, or other bacteria. Chemical conjunctivitis from prophylactic eye drops can also occur but usually presents earlier and is less purulent.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (b) acute conjunctivitis: Ophthalmia neonatorum *is* a form of acute conjunctivitis, but "ophthalmia neonatorum" is the more specific and appropriate term for conjunctivitis in this specific age group (newborns) and context, often implying infection acquired during birth.
  • (c) retinitis: Retinitis is inflammation of the retina, the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. It would present with vision problems and is not primarily characterized by purulent external discharge.
  • (d) glaucoma: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, which can damage the optic nerve and lead to vision loss. Congenital glaucoma can occur in newborns, but its primary signs are things like excessive tearing (epiphora, not usually purulent), corneal clouding, light sensitivity (photophobia), and an enlarged eye (buphthalmos), not primarily purulent discharge.

🧸10. Which of the following is the most common site for inhaled foreign objects to become dislodged?

  • (a) Alveoli.
  • (b) Trachea.
  • (c) Primary bronchi.
  • (d) Terminal bronchi.

Correct Answer: (c) Primary bronchi.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🫁When a foreign object is inhaled, it most commonly lodges in the primary bronchi, particularly the right primary bronchus. This is because the right main bronchus is generally wider, shorter, and more vertical (straighter line from the trachea) than the left main bronchus, making it an easier path for aspirated objects.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Alveoli: Alveoli are tiny air sacs deep within the lungs where gas exchange occurs. Foreign objects large enough to cause significant obstruction are unlikely to reach the alveoli; they would typically lodge in larger airways. Very small particles might reach this level but "dislodged" or "lodged" usually refers to larger objects.
  • (b) Trachea: While large objects can lodge in the trachea (windpipe) and cause severe or complete airway obstruction (which is life-threatening), smaller objects often pass through the trachea into the bronchi. The bronchi are more common lodging sites for many aspirated items.
  • (d) Terminal bronchi: These are smaller airways further down the bronchial tree. While smaller foreign objects can reach this level, the primary bronchi are the most common initial site for larger inhaled objects to become stuck after passing the trachea.

👁️‍🗨️Which of the following is a result of increased intra ocular pressure?

  • (a) Cataract.
  • (b) Strabismus.
  • (c) Xerophthamia.
  • (d) Glaucoma.

Correct Answer: (d) Glaucoma.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💧Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve, often (but not always) characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP). This elevated pressure can compress and damage the delicate optic nerve fibers, leading to progressive vision loss, starting typically with peripheral vision.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Cataract: A cataract is a clouding of the lens of the eye, which leads to decreased vision. While some types of glaucoma or the treatments for it can be associated with cataract formation, increased IOP itself directly defines glaucoma, not cataract primarily.
  • (b) Strabismus: Strabismus (squint or crossed eyes) is a condition where the eyes do not align properly and point in different directions. It's a problem with eye muscle control or coordination, not directly caused by increased intraocular pressure.
  • (c) Xerophthalmia: Xerophthalmia is a condition of severe eye dryness, typically caused by vitamin A deficiency. It affects the conjunctiva and cornea and is not a direct result of increased intraocular pressure.

🩸Which of the following may NOT cause epistaxis?

  • (a) Minor trauma.
  • (b) Deviated septum.
  • (c) Acute sinusitis.
  • (d) Hypertension.

Correct Answer: (d) Hypertension (with nuance).

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🤔This is a nuanced question as all listed conditions *can* be associated with epistaxis (nosebleed). However, hypertension's role as a direct *initiating* cause is debated. While severe hypertension can lead to epistaxis, and hypertensive individuals may have more frequent or severe nosebleeds due to fragile blood vessels, it's often considered an associated factor or an exacerbator rather than a primary local cause like trauma or inflammation within the nose. Minor trauma is a direct cause. Deviated septum and acute sinusitis lead to local changes in the nasal mucosa that predispose to bleeding. In the context of a "may NOT cause" question, hypertension is the most likely intended answer if one must be chosen as less direct compared to the others, which cause local nasal issues leading to bleeding.

Explanation for Other Options (why they generally DO cause epistaxis):

  • (a) Minor trauma: This is the most common cause of epistaxis, such as nose picking, a bump to the nose, or even forceful nose blowing.
  • (b) Deviated septum: A deviated septum can alter airflow patterns in the nose, leading to drying and crusting of the nasal mucosa on one side. This dry, irritated mucosa is more prone to bleeding.
  • (c) Acute sinusitis: Inflammation of the sinuses and nasal passages during acute sinusitis can cause the mucosal lining to become engorged, fragile, and more susceptible to bleeding, especially with nose blowing or coughing.

🩹13. Which of the following is a first aid intervention for a child with epistaxis?

  • (a) Pinch the nose and lie him in recumbency.
  • (b) Pack the nose with adrenaline gauze.
  • (c) Pinch the nose and instruct the child to bend forward.
  • (d) Apply vaso constrictor agent.

Correct Answer: (c) Pinch the nose and instruct the child to bend forward.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

👇The correct first aid for epistaxis (nosebleed) in a child involves:

  1. Having the child sit up and lean slightly forward. This prevents blood from flowing down the back of the throat, which can cause choking, nausea, or vomiting.
  2. Firmly pinching the soft, fleshy part of the nose (just below the bony bridge) continuously for at least 10-15 minutes.
Option (c) correctly combines these two crucial steps.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Pinch the nose and lie him in recumbency: Lying down (recumbency), especially lying flat on the back, will cause blood to drain down the throat, which should be avoided.
  • (b) Pack the nose with adrenaline gauze: While nasal packing or vasoconstrictors like adrenaline might be used in a clinical setting by a healthcare professional for persistent or severe epistaxis, it is generally not considered a basic first aid intervention to be done by anyone without specific training, especially the insertion of adrenaline-soaked gauze. Simple direct pressure is the first line.
  • (d) Apply vaso constrictor agent: Topical vasoconstrictor sprays (e.g., oxymetazoline) can be used for some nosebleeds, but this is more of a medical intervention than basic first aid, and their use in young children should be cautious and often under medical advice. The primary first aid is direct pressure.

🔴14. Which of the following refers to the sickle cell crisis in which there is pooling of blood in the spleen?

  • (a) Sequestration.
  • (b) Vaso-occlusive.
  • (c) Haemolytic.
  • (d) Aplastic.

Correct Answer: (a) Sequestration.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🩸Splenic sequestration crisis is a life-threatening complication of sickle cell disease, most common in young children. It occurs when a large number of sickle cells get trapped in the spleen, causing it to enlarge rapidly. This traps a significant portion of the body's blood volume in the spleen, leading to a sudden drop in hemoglobin (severe anemia) and potentially hypovolemic shock.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (b) Vaso-occlusive crisis (VOC): This is the most common type of sickle cell crisis. It's caused by sickle-shaped red blood cells blocking blood flow in small blood vessels, leading to pain, typically in the bones, chest, abdomen, or joints. It does not primarily involve pooling of blood in the spleen.
  • (c) Haemolytic crisis: This involves an accelerated rate of red blood cell destruction (hemolysis), leading to worsening anemia, jaundice, and increased reticulocyte count. While hemolysis is ongoing in sickle cell disease, a specific "hemolytic crisis" implies a more rapid breakdown than usual, but it's distinct from sequestration.
  • (d) Aplastic crisis: This is a temporary shutdown of red blood cell production in the bone marrow, often triggered by an infection (commonly Parvovirus B19). It leads to a severe drop in hemoglobin because new red blood cells are not being made to replace the ones that are naturally breaking down. It doesn't involve pooling of blood in the spleen.

👶15. The most common cause of respiratory distress syndrome in the first 24 hours of birth is

  • (a) Neonatal sepsis.
  • (b) Meconium aspiration.
  • (c) Pneumonia.
  • (d) Air embolism.

Correct Answer: (b) Meconium aspiration (among the given specific options for severe distress, especially in term/post-term; noting that classic RDS in preemies due to surfactant deficiency is also very common but not listed as such).

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💨Several conditions can cause respiratory distress in a newborn within the first 24 hours. If we consider "Respiratory Distress Syndrome" broadly as significant difficulty breathing:

  • Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS) is a major cause of severe respiratory distress, particularly in term or post-term infants who have passed meconium in utero and aspirated it. Symptoms typically begin shortly after birth.
  • Classic Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS) due to surfactant deficiency is the most common cause of respiratory distress in *premature* infants, with incidence inversely related to gestational age.
  • Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN) is also very common, especially in term infants (often after C-section), but is usually milder and resolves within 24-72 hours.
  • Neonatal Pneumonia/Sepsis can also present with respiratory distress from birth or within hours.
Given the options provided, and the potential for the question to refer to significant syndromes causing distress: (b) Meconium aspiration: This leads to Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS), a specific and often severe cause of respiratory distress presenting at birth or very soon after, especially in term or post-term babies. It causes chemical pneumonitis, airway obstruction, and can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Neonatal sepsis & (c) Pneumonia: These are critical causes of respiratory distress in newborns and can present in the first 24 hours. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs, and sepsis is a systemic infection that can certainly involve the lungs and cause respiratory failure. These are very important, but MAS is a distinct syndrome specifically causing respiratory distress due to aspiration of meconium. Distinguishing the "most common" depends on the population (preterm vs. term) and specific definitions. All three (sepsis, MAS, pneumonia) are significant. However, MAS is a direct cause of a specific "syndrome" of respiratory distress related to birth events.
  • (d) Air embolism: This is a rare cause of respiratory distress in newborns, usually associated with invasive procedures or trauma. It is not considered a common cause.

Note: The "most common" can be tricky. If the question implicitly refers to premature infants, surfactant deficiency (classic RDS) would be paramount. For term infants, TTN is common but often milder. Among severe causes in term/post-term infants listed, MAS is very significant. Sepsis/pneumonia is also a critical and common cause across gestations.

👂16. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of otitis media?

  • (a) Fever.
  • (b) Ear pain.
  • (c) Tinnitus.
  • (d) Pus discharge.

Correct Answer: (c) Tinnitus.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🔔Tinnitus (ringing or buzzing in the ears) can occur with various ear conditions, including some forms of otitis media, especially otitis media with effusion (OME) or more chronic conditions. However, in acute otitis media (AOM), particularly in young children, the primary and most prominent symptoms are ear pain (otalgia) and fever. Pus discharge occurs if the tympanic membrane (eardrum) perforates. While tinnitus *can* be present, it's less commonly reported as a primary or defining feature of typical AOM compared to the other options, especially in young children who may not be able to describe it.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Fever: Fever is a common systemic sign of infection, and it frequently accompanies acute otitis media, especially in children.
  • (b) Ear pain (Otalgia): This is a hallmark symptom of acute otitis media, caused by pressure and inflammation in the middle ear. Young children may exhibit this as irritability, pulling at the ear, or crying.
  • (d) Pus discharge (Otorrhea): If the pressure from fluid and pus in the middle ear causes the eardrum to rupture, purulent discharge will be seen coming from the ear canal. This is a definite sign of otitis media (often AOM with perforation).

🧬17. Which of the following conditions has a genetic basis?

  • (a) Diverticulitis.
  • (b) Peptic ulcers.
  • (c) Sickle cell disease.
  • (d) Gastritis.

Correct Answer: (c) Sickle cell disease.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🔴Sickle cell disease (also known as sickle cell anemia) is an inherited genetic disorder of hemoglobin. It is caused by a mutation in the gene that tells the body to make hemoglobin. Individuals inherit two copies of the sickle cell gene (one from each parent) to have the disease. It follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Diverticulitis: Diverticulitis is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can form in the walls of the intestines, particularly the colon. While a predisposition or risk factors might have some genetic influence (e.g., related to connective tissue structure), it is primarily associated with factors like a low-fiber diet, age, and lifestyle. It is not a single-gene disorder like sickle cell disease.
  • (b) Peptic ulcers: Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, esophagus, or small intestine. Common causes include infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria and long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). While there might be some genetic susceptibility to H. pylori infection or how one's body responds, peptic ulcers are not primarily classified as a genetic disease in the way sickle cell disease is.
  • (d) Gastritis: Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining. It can be caused by various factors, including H. pylori infection, excessive alcohol use, NSAIDs, stress, and autoimmune conditions. Some rare forms of gastritis might have a genetic link (e.g., autoimmune gastritis can have genetic predispositions), but common gastritis is not primarily a genetic disease.

🦠18. The commonest causative organism for tonsillitis in children belong to

  • (a) Bacilli.
  • (b) Staphylococci.
  • (c) Pneumococci.
  • (d) Streptococci.

Correct Answer: (d) Streptococci.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

👄The most common bacterial cause of acute tonsillitis (and pharyngitis) in children is Group A Streptococcus (GAS), scientifically known as *Streptococcus pyogenes*. This is often referred to as "strep throat." While viruses are also a very common cause of tonsillitis overall, when it's bacterial, Group A Streptococcus is the leading culprit.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Bacilli: Bacilli are a shape of bacteria (rod-shaped). While some bacilli can cause infections, they are not the primary common cause of typical tonsillitis in children (e.g., Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria which involves tonsils, but this is less common due to vaccination).
  • (b) Staphylococci: Staphylococci (e.g., *Staphylococcus aureus*) can cause various infections but are not the most frequent cause of acute tonsillitis compared to streptococci. They might be found in the throat but are less likely to be the primary pathogen for typical tonsillitis.
  • (c) Pneumococci: Pneumococci (*Streptococcus pneumoniae*) are a common cause of pneumonia, otitis media, and meningitis, but they are less commonly implicated as the primary cause of acute tonsillitis compared to Group A Streptococcus.

🌡️19. The most appropriate nursing management of a child in sickle cell crisis involves;

  • (a) administration of iron dextran.
  • (b) routine communication and de-worming.
  • (c) analgesics and blood transfusion.
  • (d) antibiotic and folic acids.

Correct Answer: (c) analgesics and blood transfusion (with nuance that transfusions are for specific types/severity of crisis).

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💊Management of a sickle cell crisis, particularly a vaso-occlusive crisis (VOC), focuses on several key areas:

  • Pain Management (Analgesics): Pain is often severe and is the hallmark of VOCs. Effective analgesia, often starting with NSAIDs and progressing to opioids, is crucial.
  • Hydration: Intravenous or oral fluids help to reduce blood viscosity and improve circulation.
  • Oxygen Therapy: If there is hypoxia.
  • Blood Transfusion: Blood transfusions are indicated in certain types of crises or complications, such as severe anemia (e.g., in aplastic or splenic sequestration crisis), acute chest syndrome, stroke, or prior to surgery. Simple VOC might not always require transfusion unless it's very severe or associated with a significant drop in hemoglobin.
Option (c) includes analgesics (essential for VOC) and blood transfusion (important for certain severe crises or complications). Option (d) includes antibiotics (often given if infection is suspected as a trigger or complication, e.g., acute chest syndrome) and folic acid (a routine supplement for sickle cell patients due to increased red cell turnover, but not the primary acute crisis management for pain/complications). Considering the options, (c) addresses the acute, severe aspects of a crisis directly (pain) and a major intervention for complications (transfusion). (d) antibiotic and folic acid are also relevant but folic acid is more maintenance and antibiotics are for infection. Let's refine. For a *general* sickle cell crisis (most commonly VOC): 1. **Analgesia** is paramount. 2. Hydration. 3. Oxygen if hypoxic. 4. Identifying and treating precipitants (e.g., infection with **antibiotics**). 5. **Blood transfusions** for specific indications (severe anemia, acute chest, stroke prevention). 6. **Folic acid** is a maintenance therapy. Comparing (c) and (d): (c) Analgesics (key) + Blood transfusion (for specific situations). (d) Antibiotic (if infection) + Folic acid (maintenance). If a child is "in sickle cell crisis," severe pain is almost always present. Thus, analgesics are vital. Blood transfusions are for more severe or specific types of crises. If the crisis is triggered by infection, antibiotics are key. The "most appropriate *nursing management*" would involve administering prescribed treatments. Given the options, analgesics are central. Blood transfusion is a major intervention for certain crises. This makes (c) strong. If the crisis is severe and complicated (e.g., acute chest syndrome), both analgesia, antibiotics, and potentially transfusions would be involved. The question is broad. Let's re-evaluate "most appropriate". Analgesics for pain are nearly universal in VOC. Blood transfusions are less universal for every crisis but are critical for some. Antibiotics are for suspected infection. Folic acid is ongoing. Option (c) focuses on direct symptom relief and a major intervention for severe complications.

Considering the options provided as pairs:

The core components of managing an acute crisis, especially a vaso-occlusive one (the most common), are pain relief (analgesics) and hydration. Oxygen is given if the patient is hypoxic. Antibiotics are used if an infection is a trigger or there's a risk of infection. Blood transfusions are reserved for specific severe complications like acute chest syndrome, stroke, severe anemic states from splenic sequestration or aplastic crisis, or pre-operatively. Folic acid is important for chronic management due to high red cell turnover, but not the primary intervention for an acute crisis itself.

Option (c) "analgesics and blood transfusion": Analgesics are definitely a core part. Blood transfusions are for specific, often severe, scenarios within a crisis.

Option (d) "antibiotic and folic acids": Antibiotics if infection is present/suspected. Folic acid is more for long-term management. This doesn't address the immediate pain of most crises as directly as (c) does for common crisis scenarios. Analgesia is almost always needed.

Therefore, (c) is arguably the best choice among the given pairs as it includes a cornerstone (analgesics) and a critical intervention for severe forms/complications of crisis (transfusion).

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) administration of iron dextran: Children with sickle cell disease usually have iron overload due to chronic hemolysis and frequent transfusions (if given). Iron administration is generally contraindicated unless there is proven iron deficiency, which is rare in this context. Iron overload can be harmful.
  • (b) routine communication and de-worming: Good communication is always important in nursing. De-worming is a general health measure and not specific acute management for a sickle cell crisis.
  • (d) antibiotic and folic acids: While antibiotics are used if infection triggers the crisis or is a complication, and folic acid is a routine supplement for patients with sickle cell disease, this option doesn't capture the immediate priority of pain management (analgesics) or interventions like transfusion for severe anemic complications as directly as option (c) does for common crisis scenarios. Analgesia is almost always needed.

💉20. Contact with which of the following HIV infected materials should be considered eligible for post exposure prophylaxis treatment?

  • (a) Breast milk from cracked nipple.
  • (b) Intact skin exposed to baby's stool.
  • (c) Broken skin exposed to small volume of amniotic fluid.
  • (d) Oral mucosa exposed to saliva through kissing.

Correct Answer: (c) Broken skin exposed to small volume of amniotic fluid.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

⚠️Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV is considered when there has been a significant exposure to potentially infectious body fluids. Amniotic fluid is considered potentially infectious for HIV. Exposure of broken skin (non-intact skin, e.g., a cut, abrasion, or dermatitis) to amniotic fluid from an HIV-infected individual constitutes a significant exposure that would typically warrant consideration for PEP. The risk increases with the volume of fluid and the viral load of the source.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Breast milk from cracked nipple: Breast milk from an HIV-infected mother is infectious. If a cracked nipple leads to blood in the milk, the risk of transmission (e.g., to an infant) increases. For a healthcare worker exposure, if there's exposure of mucous membranes or non-intact skin to breast milk (especially if bloody), PEP might be considered. However, option (c) presents a clearer-cut scenario of broken skin to a known infectious fluid. If this refers to infant exposure, the context would be prevention of mother-to-child transmission (PMTCT) strategies. If it's occupational, contact of *your* broken skin or mucous membrane to bloody breast milk would be a concern. Between (a) and (c), amniotic fluid exposure to broken skin is a very standard indication for PEP assessment. Breast milk from a cracked nipple also poses a risk if there is blood and exposure to mucous membranes or non-intact skin. However, amniotic fluid is listed as a fluid with risk. This is a bit tricky as both (a) and (c) could be considered. Often, amniotic fluid is clearly listed as high risk. Let's re-evaluate. *Blood is the highest risk*. Amniotic fluid is also considered high risk. Breast milk is a risk for MTCT. If the breast milk from a cracked nipple is visibly bloody, it increases risk. Option (c) specifies broken skin + amniotic fluid, which is a direct route. This seems the most definitive indication among the options for PEP assessment.
  • (b) Intact skin exposed to baby's stool: Stool (feces) is not considered infectious for HIV unless it is visibly contaminated with blood. Furthermore, exposure of *intact* skin to even potentially infectious fluids generally does not warrant PEP, as intact skin is a good barrier.
  • (d) Oral mucosa exposed to saliva through kissing: Saliva is not considered infectious for HIV transmission unless it is visibly contaminated with blood (e.g., from bleeding gums). Casual kissing is not a risk for HIV transmission, and exposure of oral mucosa to saliva (without visible blood) would not be an indication for PEP.

Clarification: Both (a) if breast milk is bloody and involves non-intact skin/mucous membrane exposure, and (c) are significant. However, amniotic fluid is consistently listed as a fluid for which PEP is indicated after percutaneous or mucous membrane/non-intact skin exposure. Given the options, (c) is a very clear indication for PEP consideration.

Fill in the blank spaces (10 marks)

👃21. An abnormal discharge of mucus from the nose is termed as __________.

Answer: Rhinorrhea

Explanation:

🤧Rhinorrhea is the medical term for a runny nose, characterized by a free discharge of thin nasal mucus. The word comes from Greek: "rhino-" meaning nose, and "-rrhea" meaning flow or discharge.

👁️22. A condition of increased pressure within the eyeball, causing gradual loss of sight is called __________.

Answer: Glaucoma

Explanation:

💧Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve, the health of which is vital for vision. This damage is often caused by an abnormally high pressure inside your eye (intraocular pressure). If untreated, it can lead to gradual, irreversible vision loss, often starting with peripheral vision.

💫23. An abnormal feeling of rotation of one's head due to disease affecting the vesibular nerve of the ear is known as __________.

Answer: Vertigo

Explanation:

😵Vertigo is a sensation of spinning dizziness, as if the room or oneself is revolving. It is often caused by a problem with the inner ear (including the vestibular nerve, which sends balance signals to the brain), brain, or sensory nerve pathways.

👓24. Patients with short sightedness are suffering from a condition called __________.

Answer: Myopia

Explanation:

🤓Myopia, commonly known as short-sightedness or near-sightedness, is a refractive error where distant objects appear blurred while close objects can be seen clearly. It occurs when the eyeball is too long or the cornea/lens is too curved, causing light to focus in front of the retina instead of directly on it.

👁️‍🗨️25. Inflammation of the cornea and iris of the eye is termed as __________.

Answer: Keratoiritis (or Iridocyclitis with keratitis / Anterior uveitis with keratitis)

Explanation:

炎症Inflammation of the cornea is called keratitis. Inflammation of the iris is called iritis. When both the cornea and the iris are inflamed, the term keratoiritis can be used. Iritis is a type of anterior uveitis. If the ciliary body is also involved with the iris, it's called iridocyclitis. So, keratoiritis specifically points to inflammation of both cornea and iris.

🩸26. A severe chronic blood disorder in which the red blood cells have abnormal shape and do not carry normal hemoglobin is referred to as __________.

Answer: Sickle cell anemia (or Sickle cell disease)

Explanation:

🌙Sickle cell anemia is a common inherited blood disorder where red blood cells, normally round, become crescent or "sickle" shaped. These abnormal cells contain an atypical type of hemoglobin (hemoglobin S). Sickle-shaped cells can block blood flow in vessels, causing pain and organ damage, and they also break down more rapidly, leading to chronic anemia.

🫁27. Inflammation of the lung parenchyma in children is called __________.

Answer: Pneumonia

Explanation:

💨Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs (alveoli, which are part of the lung parenchyma - the functional tissue of the lung) in one or both lungs. The air sacs may fill with fluid or pus (purulent material), causing cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing.

📈28. Increased respiratory rate noted in children with respiratory distress is termed as __________.

Answer: Tachypnea

Explanation:

💨Tachypnea (or tachypnoea) is the medical term for abnormally rapid breathing. It is a common sign of respiratory distress in children, as the body tries to compensate for inadequate oxygen intake or to eliminate excess carbon dioxide.

🦴29. A type of traction applied on a child when both legs are extended vertically to reduce fracture of femur is termed as __________.

Answer: Bryant's traction (also known as Gallow's traction)

Explanation:

👶Bryant's traction (sometimes referred to as Gallow's traction) is a type of skin traction used for treating fractures of the femur (thigh bone) or congenital hip dislocations in young children, typically under 2 years of age or weighing less than 12-14 kg. In this setup, both legs are suspended vertically in the air at a 90-degree angle to the hips, with the child's buttocks slightly elevated off the bed. This uses the child's body weight to provide countertraction.

💧30. Continued incontinence of urine past the age of toilet training is termed as __________.

Answer: Enuresis

Explanation:

🛏️Enuresis is the medical term for involuntary urination, especially by children at an age when they should already have bladder control (typically past the age of 5). It can occur during the day (diurnal enuresis) or, more commonly, at night (nocturnal enuresis or bedwetting).

SECTION B: Short Essay Questions (10 marks)

📝31. Outline five (5) common signs and symptom of nephrotic syndrome in children. (5 marks)

👶Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by a group of symptoms that indicate the kidneys are not working properly, specifically leading to excessive protein loss in the urine. Here are common signs and symptoms in children:

  1. Proteinuria (Massive Protein in Urine):🧪 This is the hallmark sign. Large amounts of protein, especially albumin, are lost from the blood into the urine because the kidney's filters (glomeruli) are damaged. This can make the urine appear foamy or frothy.
    Rationale: Damaged glomeruli lose their ability to prevent protein from passing into the urine.
  2. Edema (Swelling):💧 This is often the most noticeable symptom. Swelling typically starts around the eyes (periorbital edema), especially in the morning, and can progress to the legs, ankles, abdomen (ascites), and generalized body swelling (anasarca).
    Rationale: The loss of protein (albumin) from the blood reduces plasma oncotic pressure. Albumin helps keep fluid within the blood vessels. When albumin is low, fluid leaks out into the interstitial tissues, causing swelling. The kidneys also tend to retain sodium and water, contributing to edema.
  3. Hypoalbuminemia (Low Blood Albumin):📉 Due to the massive loss of albumin in the urine, the level of albumin in the blood becomes very low.
    Rationale: Direct consequence of proteinuria; the body cannot synthesize albumin fast enough to replace what is lost through the kidneys.
  4. Hyperlipidemia (High Blood Cholesterol and Triglycerides):🧈 Children with nephrotic syndrome often have elevated levels of cholesterol and other fats (lipids) in their blood.
    Rationale: The exact mechanism is complex, but it's thought that the liver tries to compensate for low blood protein by increasing production of various substances, including lipoproteins (which carry cholesterol and triglycerides). Reduced plasma oncotic pressure might also stimulate hepatic lipoprotein synthesis.
  5. Weight Gain:⚖️ This is primarily due to fluid retention causing the edema, rather than an increase in body fat or muscle.
    Rationale: Accumulation of excess fluid in the body's tissues contributes to an overall increase in body weight.
  6. Fatigue and Lethargy:😴 Children may feel unusually tired, weak, or lack energy.
    Rationale: Can be due to general illness, poor appetite, anemia (if present), or the metabolic burden of the syndrome.
  7. Loss of Appetite (Anorexia):🍽️ Children may not feel like eating, which can contribute to malnutrition if prolonged.
    Rationale: May be due to ascites causing abdominal discomfort, general malaise, or the effects of the underlying disease process.
  8. Increased Susceptibility to Infections:🦠 Children with nephrotic syndrome are more prone to infections, especially bacterial infections like peritonitis (infection of the abdominal lining) and cellulitis.
    Rationale: Loss of immunoglobulins (antibodies, which are proteins) in the urine can weaken the immune system. Edematous tissues can also be more susceptible to infection. Steroid treatment, often used for nephrotic syndrome, also suppresses the immune system.

📝32. Outline five (5) ways of preventing the transmission of trachoma in the community. (5 marks)

👁️Trachoma is a bacterial infection (caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*) that affects the eyes and is a leading cause of preventable blindness worldwide. It spreads through direct contact with eye or nose discharge from infected individuals, and indirectly through contaminated hands, clothing, or flies that have been in contact with infected discharge. The World Health Organization (WHO) promotes the SAFE strategy for trachoma control. Here are ways to prevent its transmission:

  1. Surgery for Trichiasis (S in SAFE):⚕️ While this is a treatment for the blinding stage (trichiasis - inturned eyelashes), preventing progression to this stage through other measures is key. Promptly identifying and referring individuals with trichiasis for corrective surgery prevents further corneal damage and vision loss, and can reduce the infectious reservoir if active infection is also treated.
    Rationale: Correcting inturned eyelashes stops the constant abrasion of the cornea, preventing blindness and reducing associated discomfort that might lead to eye rubbing and spread.
  2. Antibiotics (A in SAFE):💊 Mass drug administration (MDA) of antibiotics (usually azithromycin orally or tetracycline eye ointment) to entire communities in endemic areas helps to treat active infection and reduce the overall community burden of *Chlamydia trachomatis*. Treating infected individuals stops them from spreading the bacteria.
    Rationale: Antibiotics kill the bacteria causing trachoma, clearing active infection and interrupting the chain of transmission. MDA targets both symptomatic and asymptomatic carriers.
  3. Facial Cleanliness (F in SAFE):🧼 Promoting and practicing regular face washing, especially for children, helps to remove infectious eye and nose secretions. Clean faces are less attractive to eye-seeking flies.
    Rationale: Washing the face with soap and clean water removes the bacteria-laden discharge, reducing the source of infection and making it less likely for flies to land and pick up the bacteria.
  4. Environmental Improvement (E in SAFE):🏞️ This involves several components:
    • Access to Clean Water:💧 Providing easy access to sufficient quantities of clean water for drinking, cooking, and personal hygiene (like face and hand washing) is crucial.
    • Improved Sanitation:🚽 Proper disposal of human and animal feces reduces fly breeding sites. Eye-seeking flies (like *Musca sorbens*) breed in exposed feces. Constructing and using latrines is essential.
    • Fly Control:🦟 Reducing fly populations by managing waste, using latrines, and sometimes targeted insecticide use can decrease the mechanical transmission of trachoma by flies.
    Rationale: A clean environment reduces the presence and breeding of flies that can transmit the infection. Access to water enables better hygiene practices.
  5. Health Education and Promotion:🗣️ Educating communities about trachoma, how it spreads, and the importance of hygiene practices (face washing, hand washing, use of latrines) empowers them to take preventive actions. This should be done in a culturally sensitive manner.
    Rationale: Awareness and understanding of the disease and its transmission routes motivate behavior change and adoption of preventive measures.
  6. Promoting Hand Washing:🖐️ Regular hand washing with soap and clean water, especially after using the toilet, before eating, and after tending to someone with an eye infection, helps prevent the spread of bacteria from hands to eyes.
    Rationale: Hands are a major vehicle for transferring infectious discharge to one's own eyes or to others.
  7. Avoiding Sharing of Personal Items:🚫 Discouraging the sharing of towels, facecloths, beddings, and eye makeup that could be contaminated with eye secretions helps prevent direct and indirect transmission.
    Rationale: The bacteria can survive on these items (fomites) and be passed from one person to another.
SECTION C: Long Essay Questions (60 marks)

📝33. (a) Outline ten (10) specific interventions nurses should implement for a patient within the first 4 hours of tonsillectomy. (10 marks)

🛌Post-tonsillectomy care in the first 4 hours is critical, focusing on airway management, bleeding observation, pain control, and hydration. Here are specific nursing interventions:

  1. Maintain a Patent Airway:💨 Position the patient on their side (lateral position) or semi-prone once awake, with the head slightly lowered if tolerated. This allows saliva, mucus, and any slight ooze of blood to drain out of the mouth, preventing aspiration. Avoid the supine position immediately post-op. Rationale: Prevents aspiration of blood and secretions, which can obstruct the airway or cause laryngospasm.
  2. Monitor Vital Signs Frequently:🌡️ Assess pulse, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation (SpO2) every 15 minutes for the first hour, then every 30 minutes for the next hour, then hourly if stable, or as per hospital protocol. Rationale: Tachycardia (fast pulse), hypotension (low BP), and tachypnea (fast breathing) can be early signs of hemorrhage or shock. Decreased SpO2 indicates respiratory compromise.
  3. Observe for Signs of Bleeding (Hemorrhage):🩸 This is a major concern.
    • Look for frequent swallowing (a key sign of blood trickling down the throat).
    • Inspect vomitus for fresh (bright red) blood. Small amounts of dark old blood are common, but fresh blood is a concern.
    • Observe for restlessness, anxiety, or pallor.
    • Check the back of the throat gently with a good light source if bleeding is suspected and the patient can cooperate (but avoid disturbing the surgical site unnecessarily).
    Rationale: Early detection of post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent significant blood loss and airway compromise.
  4. Assess and Manage Pain:😖 Administer prescribed analgesics regularly (e.g., paracetamol, ibuprofen, or opioids if necessary) as per the doctor's orders and assess pain levels using an appropriate pain scale. Rationale: Significant throat pain is expected. Adequate pain control promotes comfort, encourages fluid intake, and reduces restlessness which might increase bleeding risk.
  5. Encourage Clear Fluid Intake (Once Awake and Gag Reflex Present):💧 Offer sips of cool, clear, non-acidic, non-carbonated fluids like water, apple juice (diluted), or ice chips/ice lollies once the patient is fully awake, has a gag reflex, and is not nauseated. Avoid red or brown colored fluids. Rationale: Hydration is important. Cool fluids can soothe the throat. Avoiding red/brown fluids helps distinguish between ingested fluids and fresh blood if vomiting occurs.
  6. Apply an Ice Collar:❄️ If available and tolerated, an ice collar or cold pack applied to the neck can help reduce swelling and pain. Rationale: Vasoconstriction from cold can help minimize edema and provide some analgesic effect.
  7. Monitor for Nausea and Vomiting:🤢 Administer antiemetics as prescribed if nausea or vomiting occurs. Rationale: Vomiting can be distressing, increase pain, and potentially dislodge clots at the surgical site, increasing bleeding risk.
  8. Discourage Coughing, Clearing Throat, or Blowing Nose:🤫 Advise the patient (if old enough to understand) and parents to avoid these actions. Rationale: These actions can dislodge clots from the tonsillar fossae and precipitate bleeding.
  9. Provide Oral Hygiene (Gentle):👄 If the patient can tolerate it, gentle mouth rinses with plain cool water may be allowed later in this period, but aggressive gargling should be avoided. Rationale: Helps keep the mouth clean and fresh, but must be done carefully to avoid disturbing the surgical site.
  10. Educate Patient/Parents on What to Report:🗣️ Clearly instruct the patient (if appropriate age) and parents on signs of bleeding to report immediately (e.g., spitting bright red blood, frequent swallowing, vomiting fresh blood, extreme restlessness). Rationale: Empowers them to participate in care and ensures prompt notification if complications arise.
  11. Assess Level of Consciousness and Airway Patency Regularly:🧠 Ensure the child is easily rousable and breathing without difficulty (no stridor, retractions, or gurgling sounds). Rationale: Sedation from anesthesia or analgesics can affect airway reflexes and respiratory effort.
  12. Check for Return of Gag Reflex:😮 Before offering any oral fluids, ensure the gag reflex has returned post-anesthesia. Rationale: Prevents aspiration if the protective airway reflexes are not yet fully recovered.

📝(b) Outline ten (10) nursing interventions that should be implemented during the immediate care of a patient who has undergone cataract surgery. (10 marks)

👁️Immediate post-operative care for a patient after cataract surgery focuses on ensuring safety, comfort, preventing complications (like infection, increased intraocular pressure (IOP), or injury to the operated eye), and providing education. Many cataract surgeries are day-case procedures.

  1. Monitor Vital Signs:🩺 Assess blood pressure, pulse, and respirations as per post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) or day surgery unit protocol. Rationale: To ensure cardiovascular and respiratory stability after anesthesia (local or general, though local is more common).
  2. Assess Level of Consciousness and Orientation:🧠 Especially if sedation or general anesthesia was used. Ensure the patient is alert or appropriately responsive. Rationale: To monitor recovery from anesthesia and ensure patient safety.
  3. Check the Eye Dressing/Shield:🛡️ Ensure the eye pad and shield (if applied by the surgeon) are secure and properly in place. Do not remove unless specifically instructed. Rationale: The shield protects the operated eye from accidental rubbing, pressure, or injury.
  4. Assess for Pain and Administer Analgesia:💊 Ask the patient about eye pain or discomfort. Mild discomfort or a scratchy feeling is common, but severe pain is not and should be reported. Administer mild analgesics (e.g., paracetamol) as prescribed. Rationale: To provide comfort. Severe pain could indicate complications like increased IOP or hemorrhage.
  5. Assess for Nausea and Vomiting:🤢 Administer antiemetics as prescribed if the patient experiences nausea or vomiting. Rationale: Vomiting can increase intraocular pressure, which is undesirable after eye surgery.
  6. Position the Patient Appropriately:🛌 Advise the patient to avoid lying on the operated side. Usually, lying on the back or non-operated side is recommended. Elevate the head of the bed slightly (e.g., 30 degrees) unless contraindicated. Rationale: To reduce intraocular pressure and minimize the risk of trauma to the operated eye.
  7. Provide Post-Operative Instructions (Reinforce):🗣️ Verbally reinforce and provide written instructions regarding:
    • Instillation of prescribed eye drops (antibiotics, steroids, NSAIDs).
    • Activity restrictions (e.g., avoiding bending, lifting heavy objects, strenuous activity, straining).
    • Importance of hand hygiene before touching the eye area or instilling drops.
    • When and how to wear the eye shield (e.g., at night, during naps).
    • Signs and symptoms of complications to report immediately (e.g., severe pain, sudden decrease in vision, flashing lights, excessive discharge, redness, swelling).
    • Follow-up appointment details.
    Rationale: Ensures patient understanding and compliance with the post-operative regimen, which is crucial for successful healing and prevention of complications.
  8. Monitor for Signs of Immediate Complications:⚠️ Observe for excessive bleeding or discharge from the eye (some mild tearing or slight blood-tinged discharge on the pad can be normal initially, but frank bleeding is not), sudden sharp pain, or sudden loss of vision. Report these immediately to the surgeon. Rationale: Early detection of complications like hemorrhage, acute rise in IOP, or endophthalmitis (though usually later) allows for prompt intervention.
  9. Offer Light Refreshments (if NPO status lifted): Once the patient is stable, alert, and able to tolerate oral intake, offer light refreshments if they were NPO (nothing by mouth) before the procedure. Rationale: To provide comfort and hydration, especially for day-case patients before discharge.
  10. Ensure Safe Discharge Arrangements:🚗 Confirm that the patient has a responsible adult to escort them home and assist them, as vision in the operated eye will be blurry, and they may be drowsy from sedation. Rationale: Patient safety is paramount. Driving or navigating alone immediately after cataract surgery is unsafe.
  11. Instruct on Protective Measures:🕶️ Advise the patient to wear sunglasses outdoors or in bright light. Rationale: The eye may be sensitive to light (photophobia) after surgery, and sunglasses provide comfort and protection.
  12. Do Not Rub or Press on the Eye:🚫 Emphasize this crucial instruction to the patient. Rationale: Rubbing can dislodge the intraocular lens, cause injury, or introduce infection.

📝34. (a) Outline six (6) of the nurses concerns for a child brought in with respiratory distress syndrome. (6 marks)

👶When a child is brought in with Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) or significant respiratory distress, nurses have several immediate and critical concerns related to maintaining life and preventing deterioration. These concerns guide their assessment and interventions:

  1. Inadequate Oxygenation and Hypoxia:📉 The primary concern is whether the child is getting enough oxygen into their blood. Signs like cyanosis (bluish discoloration of skin, lips, nail beds), low oxygen saturation (SpO2) readings, and altered mental status (irritability, lethargy) indicate hypoxia. Rationale: Hypoxia can rapidly lead to cellular damage, organ dysfunction (especially brain and heart), and can be life-threatening if not corrected promptly.
  2. Impaired Gas Exchange (Ventilation Failure):💨 Beyond just oxygenation, the nurse is concerned about the child's ability to effectively remove carbon dioxide (CO2). Signs of CO2 retention (hypercapnia) can include lethargy, decreased responsiveness, and eventually respiratory acidosis. Rationale: Ineffective ventilation leads to CO2 buildup, causing respiratory acidosis which can depress cardiac function and neurological status.
  3. Increased Work of Breathing and Fatigue:😥 The nurse observes for signs of increased respiratory effort such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), nasal flaring, grunting, use of accessory muscles, and retractions (chest indrawing). The concern is that the child will eventually tire out from this excessive effort. Rationale: Sustained increased work of breathing can lead to respiratory muscle fatigue, exhaustion, and ultimately respiratory arrest if support is not provided.
  4. Airway Patency and Potential Obstruction:🚧 Is the airway open and clear? The nurse listens for abnormal sounds like stridor (high-pitched inspiratory sound indicating upper airway obstruction), wheezing (indicating lower airway narrowing), or gurgling (suggesting secretions). Rationale: A compromised airway prevents effective oxygen entry and CO2 removal, regardless of respiratory effort. It's a medical emergency.
  5. Potential for Rapid Deterioration and Respiratory Arrest:⚠️ Children, especially infants, have limited physiological reserves. Their condition can worsen very quickly. The nurse is constantly vigilant for subtle changes that may indicate impending respiratory failure. Rationale: Early recognition of deterioration allows for timely escalation of care (e.g., intubation, mechanical ventilation) before a full respiratory arrest occurs.
  6. Identifying the Underlying Cause and Associated Complications:🔍 While immediate supportive care is paramount, the nurse is also concerned about what is causing the respiratory distress (e.g., pneumonia, asthma, foreign body aspiration, sepsis, heart failure, classic RDS in a premature infant). Understanding the cause guides specific treatments. They also watch for complications like pneumothorax. Rationale: Treating the underlying cause is essential for resolution of the respiratory distress. Different causes require different specific medical interventions.
  7. Fluid and Nutritional Status:💧 Children with respiratory distress may have difficulty feeding due to increased work of breathing and may also have increased insensible fluid losses. Dehydration can worsen their condition. Rationale: Adequate hydration is crucial for thinning secretions and maintaining circulatory volume. Poor nutrition can weaken the child further.
  8. Anxiety and Fear (Child and Parents):😟 Respiratory distress is frightening for the child and their parents. High anxiety levels can exacerbate the child's distress. Rationale: Providing emotional support and clear communication can help reduce anxiety, which can improve the child's cooperation and reduce metabolic demands.

📝(b) Outline, with rationale, seven (7) specific nursing interventions that should be implemented for a child admitted with status asthmaticus. (14 marks)

🏥Status asthmaticus is a severe, prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to standard bronchodilator treatments. It is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate and aggressive nursing and medical intervention.

  1. Administer High-Flow Oxygen Therapy:💨Intervention: Provide humidified oxygen via a face mask (non-rebreather if severe) or nasal cannula at a high flow rate to maintain oxygen saturation (SpO2) above 94% (or as per specific hospital protocol). Rationale: Status asthmaticus causes significant bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation, leading to severe hypoxia (low blood oxygen). Supplemental oxygen helps to correct hypoxemia, improve tissue oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Humidification prevents drying of airway secretions.
  2. Administer Rapid-Acting Inhaled Bronchodilators Frequently and Continuously:들이쉬다Intervention: Administer short-acting beta2-agonists (SABA) like Salbutamol (Albuterol) via nebulizer, often continuously or at frequent intervals (e.g., every 20 minutes for the first hour) as prescribed. May also include inhaled anticholinergics like Ipratropium bromide, often given in combination with SABAs. Rationale: SABAs relax bronchial smooth muscle, causing bronchodilation and relieving airflow obstruction, which is the primary problem. Anticholinergics provide additive bronchodilation by blocking muscarinic receptors in the airways. Frequent or continuous administration is needed due to the severity and persistence of bronchospasm.
  3. Administer Systemic Corticosteroids:💊Intervention: Administer systemic corticosteroids (e.g., oral prednisolone, intravenous hydrocortisone, or methylprednisolone) as prescribed by the doctor, without delay. Rationale: Corticosteroids reduce airway inflammation and edema, and decrease mucus production. Their effect is not immediate for bronchodilation (takes hours), but they are crucial for treating the underlying inflammation and preventing relapse or worsening of the asthma attack. Early administration is key.
  4. Establish and Maintain Intravenous (IV) Access:💉Intervention: Secure IV access promptly for administration of fluids and medications. Administer IV fluids (e.g., isotonic saline) as prescribed. Rationale: IV access is essential for administering emergency medications (like IV corticosteroids, IV magnesium sulfate, or IV aminophylline if indicated) and for rehydration. Children in status asthmaticus may be dehydrated due to increased insensible losses from tachypnea, decreased oral intake, and vomiting. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, maintain hydration, and keep airway secretions looser.
  5. Perform Continuous Cardiorespiratory Monitoring and Frequent Respiratory Assessments:💓Intervention: Continuously monitor heart rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation (SpO2). Perform frequent, focused respiratory assessments including auscultation of breath sounds (presence and quality of wheezing, air entry), work of breathing (retractions, nasal flaring, use of accessory muscles), and level of consciousness. Note any changes like a "silent chest" (ominous sign of severe obstruction with poor air entry). Rationale: Close monitoring allows for early detection of worsening respiratory status, response to treatment, or development of complications (e.g., respiratory fatigue, impending respiratory arrest, pneumothorax). A silent chest, despite severe distress, indicates minimal air movement and is a pre-arrest sign.
  6. Position for Optimal Lung Expansion and Comfort:🪑Intervention: Assist the child into a position of comfort that facilitates breathing, usually an upright position (e.g., sitting up, leaning forward on a table – "tripod position"). Avoid forcing the child to lie flat. Rationale: An upright position allows for maximum diaphragmatic excursion and lung expansion, reducing the work of breathing. Allowing the child to assume their position of comfort minimizes distress.
  7. Provide a Calm, Reassuring Environment and Emotional Support:🤗Intervention: Maintain a calm demeanor. Explain procedures simply to the child (if age-appropriate) and parents. Reassure them that help is being provided. Allow parents to stay with the child if possible and appropriate. Rationale: Anxiety and fear can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and increase the child's work of breathing and oxygen demand. A calm environment and emotional support can help reduce the child's and parents' anxiety, promoting better cooperation with treatments.
  8. Monitor for Side Effects of Medications:⚠️Intervention: Be vigilant for potential side effects of medications, such as tremors, tachycardia, palpitations, and agitation from SABAs; hyperglycemia or hypertension from corticosteroids. Rationale: While medications are life-saving, they can have side effects. Monitoring helps in managing these or adjusting treatment if they become severe.
  9. Prepare for Potential Escalation of Care:🚀Intervention: Be aware of the signs indicating a need for more aggressive interventions, such as admission to a Pediatric Intensive Care Unit (PICU), administration of IV bronchodilators (e.g., magnesium sulfate, aminophylline, or terbutaline), or even intubation and mechanical ventilation. Ensure emergency equipment is readily available. Rationale: Status asthmaticus can progress despite initial treatment. Nurses must be prepared for rapid deterioration and assist with advanced life support measures if needed.

📝35. (a) List five (5) signs and symptoms that commonly occur in HIV infected children. (5 marks)

👶HIV infection in children can manifest with a wide range of signs and symptoms, often related to immune system dysfunction and susceptibility to opportunistic infections. The presentation can vary depending on the child's age and stage of infection. Here are five common ones:

  1. Failure to Thrive (FTT) / Poor Weight Gain and Growth Delay:📉 Many HIV-infected children experience difficulty gaining weight and growing at a normal rate for their age. This can be due to poor appetite, malabsorption, chronic infections, or increased metabolic demands. Rationale: HIV can affect nutrient absorption and utilization, and chronic illness places increased energy demands on the body.
  2. Recurrent or Persistent Infections:🔁 Children with HIV have a weakened immune system, making them highly susceptible to frequent, severe, or unusual infections. These can include:
    • Oral thrush (candidiasis) that is persistent or recurrent.
    • Recurrent bacterial infections like pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, or skin infections.
    • Persistent diarrhea.
    • Opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP/PCP) in severe immunosuppression.
    Rationale: HIV progressively destroys CD4+ T-lymphocytes, which are crucial for immune defense against various pathogens.
  3. Generalized Lymphadenopathy (Swollen Lymph Glands):🔗 Persistent and widespread swelling of lymph nodes in multiple areas (e.g., neck, armpits, groin) is a common finding. Rationale: Lymph nodes are part of the immune system and become reactive and enlarged as the body tries to fight the chronic HIV infection and other co-infections.
  4. Hepatosplenomegaly (Enlarged Liver and Spleen):🩺 The liver and spleen may become enlarged. Rationale: This can be due to the body's response to chronic infection, direct viral effects, or involvement with other opportunistic conditions.
  5. Developmental Delay or Neurological Problems:🧠 HIV can affect the developing brain, leading to delays in reaching developmental milestones (e.g., sitting, walking, talking). Some children may develop neurological complications such as progressive encephalopathy, seizures, or motor deficits. Rationale: HIV can directly infect brain cells or cause inflammation in the central nervous system, impacting neurological development and function.
  6. Chronic Cough or Respiratory Symptoms:🗣️ Due to recurrent lung infections or conditions like lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis (LIP), which is common in HIV-infected children.
  7. Skin Rashes or Lesions:🖐️ Various skin problems, including persistent dermatitis, fungal skin infections, or viral rashes (e.g., molluscum contagiosum) can occur.

📝(b) Outline fifteen (15) interventions that should be implemented during management of a child admitted in sickle cell crisis until discharge. (15 marks)

🏥Managing a child admitted with sickle cell crisis involves a comprehensive, multidisciplinary approach aimed at relieving pain, managing complications, providing supportive care, and educating the family. Care extends from the acute phase through to discharge planning.

  1. Prompt and Aggressive Pain Assessment and Management:😖Intervention: Regularly assess pain using an age-appropriate pain scale (e.g., FLACC, Wong-Baker FACES, Numeric). Administer prescribed analgesics (e.g., NSAIDs, paracetamol, opioids like morphine) on a regular schedule and as needed (PRN) for breakthrough pain. Consider non-pharmacological methods (e.g., heat packs, distraction). Rationale: Pain is the hallmark of vaso-occlusive crisis (VOC) and can be severe. Effective and timely pain relief is a priority to improve comfort, reduce physiological stress, and promote rest.
  2. Ensure Adequate Hydration:💧Intervention: Administer intravenous (IV) fluids as prescribed (e.g., D5W with 0.25% or 0.45% saline) at a maintenance or higher rate to ensure good hydration. Encourage oral fluids if tolerated. Monitor intake and output. Rationale: Hydration helps to reduce blood viscosity, improve microvascular perfusion, and potentially reduce sickling and vaso-occlusion.
  3. Administer Oxygen Therapy as Indicated:💨Intervention: Monitor oxygen saturation (SpO2). Administer supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula or face mask if SpO2 is below 92-94% or if there are signs of hypoxia or acute chest syndrome. Rationale: Hypoxia can promote sickling. Oxygen therapy aims to correct hypoxemia and improve tissue oxygenation.
  4. Monitor Vital Signs and Respiratory Status Closely:🌡️Intervention: Regularly monitor temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure, and SpO2. Assess for signs of respiratory distress (tachypnea, cough, chest pain, retractions) which might indicate acute chest syndrome (ACS). Rationale: To detect early signs of complications like infection, ACS, or cardiovascular instability.
  5. Administer Antibiotics if Infection is Suspected or Confirmed:💊Intervention: Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics as prescribed if fever is present or infection (a common trigger for crisis) is suspected, pending culture results. Rationale: Children with sickle cell disease are prone to infections. Prompt treatment of infection is crucial as it can precipitate or worsen a crisis.
  6. Facilitate Blood Transfusions as Prescribed:🩸Intervention: If ordered (e.g., for severe anemia, ACS, stroke, splenic sequestration), prepare for and administer blood transfusions (simple or exchange) safely, monitoring for transfusion reactions. Rationale: Transfusions increase the proportion of normal red blood cells, improve oxygen-carrying capacity, and reduce the percentage of sickle cells, thereby alleviating some complications.
  7. Monitor for Complications:⚠️Intervention: Vigilantly assess for signs of ACS (chest pain, fever, cough, new infiltrate on X-ray), stroke (neurological changes), splenic sequestration (sudden pallor, abdominal distension, shock), aplastic crisis (severe drop in Hb), priapism, or DVT. Rationale: Early detection of these life-threatening complications allows for prompt and specific interventions.
  8. Provide Folic Acid Supplementation:🌿Intervention: Administer daily folic acid as prescribed. Rationale: Chronic hemolysis in sickle cell disease leads to increased red blood cell turnover, requiring more folic acid for new red cell production.
  9. Promote Rest and Comfort:🛌Intervention: Minimize unnecessary disturbances. Position the child comfortably. Encourage rest periods. Rationale: Rest reduces metabolic demands and oxygen consumption, which can be beneficial during a crisis. Comfort measures aid in pain management.
  10. Maintain Optimal Body Temperature:☀️Intervention: Keep the child warm and avoid exposure to cold, as cold can precipitate sickling. Manage fever with antipyretics. Rationale: Cold can trigger vasoconstriction and increase sickling. Fever increases metabolic demand and fluid loss.
  11. Provide Psychosocial Support to Child and Family:🤗Intervention: Offer emotional support, listen to concerns, and provide clear explanations. Involve child life specialists if available. Rationale: Hospitalization and pain can be very stressful for the child and family. Support helps them cope.
  12. Educate Child and Family on Crisis Prevention and Management:🗣️Intervention: Reinforce knowledge about triggers of crisis (e.g., dehydration, infection, cold, stress), importance of hydration, prophylactic medications (e.g., penicillin, hydroxyurea if prescribed), recognizing early signs of crisis, and when to seek medical attention. Rationale: Empowers the family to manage the condition effectively at home and prevent future crises.
  13. Ensure Adequate Nutrition:🍎Intervention: Encourage a balanced diet when tolerated. Monitor appetite and nutritional intake. Rationale: Good nutrition supports overall health and immune function, which is important in a chronic condition.
  14. Coordinate with Multidisciplinary Team:🤝Intervention: Liaise with doctors, hematologists, physiotherapists, social workers, and other team members to ensure comprehensive care. Rationale: A team approach ensures all aspects of the child's care are addressed.
  15. Prepare for Discharge:🏡Intervention: Ensure the child's pain is well-controlled on oral analgesics, they are afebrile, tolerating oral fluids, and stable. Confirm follow-up appointments, provide necessary prescriptions, and ensure the family understands the discharge plan and home care instructions. Rationale: A well-planned discharge ensures a smooth transition to home care and continued management.
  16. Monitor Neurological Status:🧠Intervention: Perform regular neurological checks (level of consciousness, speech, motor strength, coordination) especially if there's any concern for stroke. Rationale: Stroke is a serious complication of sickle cell disease, and early detection is crucial.
  17. Encourage Gentle Range of Motion Exercises (when pain allows):🤸Intervention: If the child is stable and pain is manageable, encourage gentle movement or passive range of motion exercises if mobility is limited for extended periods. Rationale: Helps prevent joint stiffness and complications of immobility, but should not exacerbate pain.
Nurses Revision Uganda
``` Okay, let's continue with Section C, providing detailed answers for the long essay questions.```htmlDNE 113: Surgical Nursing III and Paediatric Nursing II - Dec 2019

UGANDA NURSES AND MIDWIVES EXAMINATIONS BOARD

YEAR 1: SEMESTER 1: EXAMINATIONS

DIPLOMA IN NURSING EXTENSION

Paper: Surgical Nursing III and Paediatric Nursing II

Paper Code: DNE 113

Date: December 2019

Duration: 3 HOURS

IMPORTANT:

  1. Write your examination number on the question paper and answer sheets.
  2. Read the questions carefully and answer only what has been asked in the question.
  3. Answer all the questions.
  4. The paper has three sections.
SECTION A: Objective Questions (20 marks)

🦴1. The commonest type of fracture found in children below 16 months is?

  • (a) Impacted.
  • (b) Commuted.
  • (c) Compound.
  • (d) Greenstick.

Correct Answer: (d) Greenstick.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🌿A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture where the bone is bent and partially broken, much like a young, green twig breaks. This type of fracture is common in young children because their bones are softer, more flexible, and less brittle than adult bones. The periosteum (the outer lining of the bone) in children is also thicker and stronger, which often prevents the bone from breaking completely through.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Impacted fracture: This occurs when the broken ends of the bone are jammed together by the force of the injury. While possible in children, it's not the *commonest* type specifically highlighted for this young age group like greenstick fractures are.
  • (b) Commuted fracture: This is a fracture where the bone is broken into three or more pieces. These are usually caused by high-impact trauma and are less common than greenstick fractures in very young children.
  • (c) Compound fracture (Open fracture): This is a fracture where the broken bone pierces the skin, creating an open wound. While serious, it's not defined by the *way* the bone breaks (like greenstick) but by its communication with the outside environment. It's not the *commonest type* of break pattern in this age group.

🦠Which of the following is the commonest site of osteomyelitis in children?

  • (a) Bone shaft.
  • (b) Epiphyses.
  • (c) Ridges.
  • (d) Proximal extremites.

Correct Answer: (d) Proximal extremites.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🦵Osteomyelitis in children most commonly affects the metaphysis of long bones. The metaphysis is the growing part of a long bone between the diaphysis (shaft) and the epiphysis (end). Long bones like the femur (thigh bone), tibia (shin bone), and humerus (upper arm bone) are frequently involved. These are major bones of the "proximal extremities" (referring to the limbs and specifically their long bones). The rich blood supply in the metaphyseal region of these bones makes them susceptible to hematogenous (blood-borne) spread of infection. So, "Proximal extremities" best encompasses these common locations.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Bone shaft (Diaphysis): While osteomyelitis can occur in the diaphysis, the metaphysis is more commonly the initial site of infection in children due to its unique vascular structure.
  • (b) Epiphyses: The epiphyses (ends of the long bones beyond the growth plate) can be affected, especially in neonates where blood vessels cross the growth plate, or if infection spreads from the metaphysis. However, the metaphysis is generally considered the primary site.
  • (c) Ridges: "Ridges" is not a standard anatomical term used to describe a common primary site for osteomyelitis. Osteomyelitis affects specific parts of bones like the metaphysis, diaphysis, or epiphysis.

👶The most important nursing consideration when managing a child with osteogenesis imperfecta is to

  • (a) educate care takers of diet.
  • (b) ensure early treatment.
  • (c) handle the child carefully.
  • (d) prepare the child for surgery.

Correct Answer: (c) handle the child carefully.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

GENTLEOsteogenesis imperfecta (OI), also known as brittle bone disease, is a genetic disorder characterized by fragile bones that fracture easily. Therefore, the utmost priority and most important nursing consideration is to handle the child with extreme care and gentleness to prevent fractures. This includes careful positioning, lifting, dressing, and diapering.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) educate care takers of diet: While nutrition (e.g., adequate calcium and vitamin D) is important for bone health in general and is part of OI management, preventing iatrogenic fractures through careful handling is the most immediate and critical nursing consideration to prevent harm.
  • (b) ensure early treatment: Early diagnosis and a comprehensive treatment plan (which may include medication like bisphosphonates, physical therapy, etc.) are vital for managing OI. However, "handling carefully" is a direct, ongoing nursing action critical in every interaction.
  • (d) prepare the child for surgery: Surgical interventions, such as rodding (inserting metal rods into long bones to provide support and prevent fractures/correct deformities), may be necessary for some children with OI. However, not all children require surgery, and careful handling is universally crucial for all children with OI at all times, not just in preparation for surgery.

💨Which of the following is NOT a sign of airway obstruction?

  • (a) Chest indrawing.
  • (b) Wheezing.
  • (c) Convulsion.
  • (d) Anxiety.

Correct Answer: (c) Convulsion.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🧠A convulsion (seizure) is primarily a neurological event characterized by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. While severe and prolonged airway obstruction can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels), which in turn *could* eventually trigger a convulsion, a convulsion itself is not a direct sign *of* airway obstruction. The other signs listed are direct manifestations of difficulty breathing due to a blocked airway.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Chest indrawing (Retractions): This occurs when the soft tissues of the chest (e.g., between the ribs, above the clavicles, or below the sternum) are sucked inward during inspiration. It indicates increased effort of breathing because the airway is obstructed, and the person is working harder to pull air in.
  • (b) Wheezing: This is a high-pitched whistling sound made during breathing, usually on exhalation, but can also be on inhalation. It's caused by narrowed airways, which is a form of airway obstruction (e.g., in asthma, bronchiolitis, or due to a foreign body).
  • (d) Anxiety: Difficulty breathing (dyspnea) due to airway obstruction is frightening and physically distressing, leading to anxiety, restlessness, and agitation as the body struggles for oxygen.

⚕️Which of the following is NOT a principle indication for tracheostomy?

  • (a) Respiratory failure.
  • (b) Cardiac arrest.
  • (c) Airway obstruction.
  • (d) Assisted respiration.

Correct Answer: (b) Cardiac arrest.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

❤️Cardiac arrest is the sudden cessation of heart function. The immediate priority in cardiac arrest is cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), which includes chest compressions and rescue breathing (often via bag-mask ventilation or endotracheal intubation if advanced airway is needed quickly). A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the neck into the trachea; it is not an emergency procedure for initiating airway management during an acute cardiac arrest. While a patient who has been resuscitated from cardiac arrest might later require a tracheostomy if they need prolonged mechanical ventilation, the cardiac arrest itself is not a primary indication for performing an immediate tracheostomy.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Respiratory failure: This is a condition where the respiratory system fails to maintain adequate gas exchange. Patients with respiratory failure often require mechanical ventilation, and if this is prolonged, a tracheostomy may be indicated to facilitate long-term airway management, reduce ventilator-associated complications, and improve comfort.
  • (c) Airway obstruction: Upper airway obstruction (e.g., due to tumors, severe trauma, swelling, or congenital anomalies) that cannot be relieved by other means (like intubation) is a key indication for tracheostomy to bypass the obstruction and secure the airway.
  • (d) Assisted respiration (Prolonged mechanical ventilation): When a patient requires long-term assisted respiration via mechanical ventilation (typically more than 1-2 weeks via an endotracheal tube), a tracheostomy is often performed. It is more comfortable for the patient, allows for easier oral hygiene, may reduce the work of breathing, and facilitates weaning from the ventilator.

🗣️The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with productive cough would be

  • (a) altered nutrition less than body requirements.
  • (b) impaired gaseous exchange.
  • (c) ineffective airway clearance.
  • (d) ineffective breathing pattern.

Correct Answer: (c) ineffective airway clearance.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🤧A productive cough means the child is coughing up mucus or sputum. The nursing diagnosis "Ineffective Airway Clearance" is defined as the inability to clear secretions or obstructions from the respiratory tract to maintain a clear airway. A productive cough is a direct sign that the child is attempting to clear secretions, and if these secretions are difficult to expel or are excessive, their airway clearance is ineffective.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) altered nutrition less than body requirements: While a child who is unwell with a cough might have a poor appetite leading to nutritional issues, the productive cough itself directly points to an airway clearance problem, not primarily a nutritional one.
  • (b) impaired gaseous exchange: This diagnosis relates to problems with oxygen getting into the blood and carbon dioxide getting out at the alveolar-capillary level. While excessive secretions retained due to ineffective airway clearance *can* lead to impaired gas exchange (e.g., if airways are blocked), the primary problem indicated by a productive cough is the difficulty clearing the airways themselves.
  • (d) ineffective breathing pattern: This refers to changes in the rate, rhythm, timing, or depth of breathing (e.g., too fast, too slow, too shallow). While a child with a respiratory infection might have an altered breathing pattern, the *productive* nature of the cough specifically highlights the issue of clearing secretions.

❤️7. Which of the following is a congenital heart defect NOT found in tetralogy of Fallot?

  • (a) Right ventricular hypertrophy.
  • (b) Overriding of the aorta.
  • (c) Ventricular septal defect.
  • (d) Aortic stenosis.

Correct Answer: (d) Aortic stenosis.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💔Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a complex congenital heart defect characterized by four specific abnormalities (though the name means "four," the core defects are usually listed as):

  1. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) - a hole between the ventricles.
  2. Pulmonary Stenosis (or right ventricular outflow tract obstruction) - narrowing of the passage from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery.
  3. Overriding Aorta - the aorta is positioned over the VSD, receiving blood from both ventricles.
  4. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy - thickening of the muscle of the right ventricle, due to the increased workload from pumping against the pulmonary stenosis.
Aortic stenosis (narrowing of the aortic valve) is NOT one of the four characteristic defects of Tetralogy of Fallot. Instead, TOF involves pulmonary stenosis.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Right ventricular hypertrophy: This is a classic feature of TOF, developing because the right ventricle has to pump harder to get blood past the narrowed pulmonary valve/outflow tract.
  • (b) Overriding of the aorta: This is a key component of TOF, where the aorta is displaced to the right and sits over the ventricular septal defect.
  • (c) Ventricular septal defect (VSD): A VSD is one of the defining malformations in TOF, allowing oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle to mix with oxygen-rich blood in the left ventricle.

👶8. Which of the following poses the greatest risks of HIV infection in infants?

  • (a) Expressed breast milk.
  • (b) Mixed feeding.
  • (c) Exclusive breast feeding.
  • (d) Formula feeding.

Correct Answer: (b) Mixed feeding.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🍼For infants born to HIV-positive mothers, mixed feeding (giving both breast milk and other foods/liquids like formula, water, or solids before 6 months) has been shown to pose a higher risk of HIV transmission compared to exclusive breastfeeding or exclusive formula feeding. The theory is that other foods can disrupt the delicate lining of the baby's gut, making it more permeable and susceptible to HIV entry if the mother is breastfeeding. Current WHO guidelines recommend that HIV-positive mothers should exclusively breastfeed for the first 6 months unless replacement feeding (exclusive formula feeding) is Acceptable, Feasible, Affordable, Sustainable, and Safe (AFASS). If these AFASS criteria are met, then exclusive formula feeding is recommended. Mixed feeding should be avoided.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Expressed breast milk: If the mother is HIV positive, her breast milk contains the virus. Expressed breast milk carries the same risk as direct breastfeeding if not heat-treated (which can inactivate the virus but is not always feasible or done correctly). However, the question is about the *feeding method* posing the greatest risk, and mixed feeding is particularly problematic.
  • (c) Exclusive breast feeding: While there is a risk of HIV transmission through breastfeeding from an HIV-positive mother (especially if she is not on antiretroviral therapy - ART), exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months is generally considered safer than mixed feeding. With maternal ART, the risk of transmission via exclusive breastfeeding is significantly reduced.
  • (d) Formula feeding: Exclusive formula feeding (replacement feeding) eliminates the risk of postnatal HIV transmission from mother to child through breast milk, provided it is prepared and given safely (AFASS criteria). It carries no risk of HIV transmission from the mother's milk.

👁️Purulent discharge from the eyes of a new born baby within 21 days of birth is due to

  • (a) opthalmia neonatorum.
  • (b) acute conjunctivitis.
  • (c) retinitis.
  • (d) glaucoma.

Correct Answer: (a) opthalmia neonatorum.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💧Ophthalmia neonatorum is defined as conjunctivitis (inflammation of the conjunctiva) occurring in a newborn baby, typically within the first month of life (the 21-day timeframe fits this). It is often characterized by purulent (pus-like) discharge. Common causes include bacterial infections like Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis acquired from the mother during birth, or other bacteria. Chemical conjunctivitis from prophylactic eye drops can also occur but usually presents earlier and is less purulent.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (b) acute conjunctivitis: Ophthalmia neonatorum *is* a form of acute conjunctivitis, but "ophthalmia neonatorum" is the more specific and appropriate term for conjunctivitis in this specific age group (newborns) and context, often implying infection acquired during birth.
  • (c) retinitis: Retinitis is inflammation of the retina, the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. It would present with vision problems and is not primarily characterized by purulent external discharge.
  • (d) glaucoma: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, which can damage the optic nerve and lead to vision loss. Congenital glaucoma can occur in newborns, but its primary signs are things like excessive tearing (epiphora, not usually purulent), corneal clouding, light sensitivity (photophobia), and an enlarged eye (buphthalmos), not primarily purulent discharge.

🧸10. Which of the following is the most common site for inhaled foreign objects to become dislodged?

  • (a) Alveoli.
  • (b) Trachea.
  • (c) Primary bronchi.
  • (d) Terminal bronchi.

Correct Answer: (c) Primary bronchi.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🫁When a foreign object is inhaled, it most commonly lodges in the primary bronchi, particularly the right primary bronchus. This is because the right main bronchus is generally wider, shorter, and more vertical (straighter line from the trachea) than the left main bronchus, making it an easier path for aspirated objects.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Alveoli: Alveoli are tiny air sacs deep within the lungs where gas exchange occurs. Foreign objects large enough to cause significant obstruction are unlikely to reach the alveoli; they would typically lodge in larger airways. Very small particles might reach this level but "dislodged" or "lodged" usually refers to larger objects.
  • (b) Trachea: While large objects can lodge in the trachea (windpipe) and cause severe or complete airway obstruction (which is life-threatening), smaller objects often pass through the trachea into the bronchi. The bronchi are more common lodging sites for many aspirated items.
  • (d) Terminal bronchi: These are smaller airways further down the bronchial tree. While smaller foreign objects can reach this level, the primary bronchi are the most common initial site for larger inhaled objects to become stuck after passing the trachea.

👁️‍🗨️Which of the following is a result of increased intra ocular pressure?

  • (a) Cataract.
  • (b) Strabismus.
  • (c) Xerophthamia.
  • (d) Glaucoma.

Correct Answer: (d) Glaucoma.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💧Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve, often (but not always) characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP). This elevated pressure can compress and damage the delicate optic nerve fibers, leading to progressive vision loss, starting typically with peripheral vision.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Cataract: A cataract is a clouding of the lens of the eye, which leads to decreased vision. While some types of glaucoma or the treatments for it can be associated with cataract formation, increased IOP itself directly defines glaucoma, not cataract primarily.
  • (b) Strabismus: Strabismus (squint or crossed eyes) is a condition where the eyes do not align properly and point in different directions. It's a problem with eye muscle control or coordination, not directly caused by increased intraocular pressure.
  • (c) Xerophthalmia: Xerophthalmia is a condition of severe eye dryness, typically caused by vitamin A deficiency. It affects the conjunctiva and cornea and is not a direct result of increased intraocular pressure.

🩸Which of the following may NOT cause epistaxis?

  • (a) Minor trauma.
  • (b) Deviated septum.
  • (c) Acute sinusitis.
  • (d) Hypertension.

Correct Answer: (d) Hypertension (with nuance).

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🤔This is a nuanced question as all listed conditions *can* be associated with epistaxis (nosebleed). However, hypertension's role as a direct *initiating* cause is debated. While severe hypertension can lead to epistaxis, and hypertensive individuals may have more frequent or severe nosebleeds due to fragile blood vessels, it's often considered an associated factor or an exacerbator rather than a primary local cause like trauma or inflammation within the nose. Minor trauma is a direct cause. Deviated septum and acute sinusitis lead to local changes in the nasal mucosa that predispose to bleeding. In the context of a "may NOT cause" question, hypertension is the most likely intended answer if one must be chosen as less direct compared to the others, which cause local nasal issues leading to bleeding.

Explanation for Other Options (why they generally DO cause epistaxis):

  • (a) Minor trauma: This is the most common cause of epistaxis, such as nose picking, a bump to the nose, or even forceful nose blowing.
  • (b) Deviated septum: A deviated septum can alter airflow patterns in the nose, leading to drying and crusting of the nasal mucosa on one side. This dry, irritated mucosa is more prone to bleeding.
  • (c) Acute sinusitis: Inflammation of the sinuses and nasal passages during acute sinusitis can cause the mucosal lining to become engorged, fragile, and more susceptible to bleeding, especially with nose blowing or coughing.

🩹13. Which of the following is a first aid intervention for a child with epistaxis?

  • (a) Pinch the nose and lie him in recumbency.
  • (b) Pack the nose with adrenaline gauze.
  • (c) Pinch the nose and instruct the child to bend forward.
  • (d) Apply vaso constrictor agent.

Correct Answer: (c) Pinch the nose and instruct the child to bend forward.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

👇The correct first aid for epistaxis (nosebleed) in a child involves:

  1. Having the child sit up and lean slightly forward. This prevents blood from flowing down the back of the throat, which can cause choking, nausea, or vomiting.
  2. Firmly pinching the soft, fleshy part of the nose (just below the bony bridge) continuously for at least 10-15 minutes.
Option (c) correctly combines these two crucial steps.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Pinch the nose and lie him in recumbency: Lying down (recumbency), especially lying flat on the back, will cause blood to drain down the throat, which should be avoided.
  • (b) Pack the nose with adrenaline gauze: While nasal packing or vasoconstrictors like adrenaline might be used in a clinical setting by a healthcare professional for persistent or severe epistaxis, it is generally not considered a basic first aid intervention to be done by anyone without specific training, especially the insertion of adrenaline-soaked gauze. Simple direct pressure is the first line.
  • (d) Apply vaso constrictor agent: Topical vasoconstrictor sprays (e.g., oxymetazoline) can be used for some nosebleeds, but this is more of a medical intervention than basic first aid, and their use in young children should be cautious and often under medical advice. The primary first aid is direct pressure.

🔴14. Which of the following refers to the sickle cell crisis in which there is pooling of blood in the spleen?

  • (a) Sequestration.
  • (b) Vaso-occlusive.
  • (c) Haemolytic.
  • (d) Aplastic.

Correct Answer: (a) Sequestration.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🩸Splenic sequestration crisis is a life-threatening complication of sickle cell disease, most common in young children. It occurs when a large number of sickle cells get trapped in the spleen, causing it to enlarge rapidly. This traps a significant portion of the body's blood volume in the spleen, leading to a sudden drop in hemoglobin (severe anemia) and potentially hypovolemic shock.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (b) Vaso-occlusive crisis (VOC): This is the most common type of sickle cell crisis. It's caused by sickle-shaped red blood cells blocking blood flow in small blood vessels, leading to pain, typically in the bones, chest, abdomen, or joints. It does not primarily involve pooling of blood in the spleen.
  • (c) Haemolytic crisis: This involves an accelerated rate of red blood cell destruction (hemolysis), leading to worsening anemia, jaundice, and increased reticulocyte count. While hemolysis is ongoing in sickle cell disease, a specific "hemolytic crisis" implies a more rapid breakdown than usual, but it's distinct from sequestration.
  • (d) Aplastic crisis: This is a temporary shutdown of red blood cell production in the bone marrow, often triggered by an infection (commonly Parvovirus B19). It leads to a severe drop in hemoglobin because new red blood cells are not being made to replace the ones that are naturally breaking down. It doesn't involve pooling of blood in the spleen.

👶15. The most common cause of respiratory distress syndrome in the first 24 hours of birth is

  • (a) Neonatal sepsis.
  • (b) Meconium aspiration.
  • (c) Pneumonia.
  • (d) Air embolism.

Correct Answer: (b) Meconium aspiration (among the given specific options for severe distress, especially in term/post-term; noting that classic RDS in preemies due to surfactant deficiency is also very common but not listed as such).

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💨Several conditions can cause respiratory distress in a newborn within the first 24 hours. If we consider "Respiratory Distress Syndrome" broadly as significant difficulty breathing:

  • Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS) is a major cause of severe respiratory distress, particularly in term or post-term infants who have passed meconium in utero and aspirated it. Symptoms typically begin shortly after birth.
  • Classic Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS) due to surfactant deficiency is the most common cause of respiratory distress in *premature* infants, with incidence inversely related to gestational age.
  • Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN) is also very common, especially in term infants (often after C-section), but is usually milder and resolves within 24-72 hours.
  • Neonatal Pneumonia/Sepsis can also present with respiratory distress from birth or within hours.
Given the options provided, and the potential for the question to refer to significant syndromes causing distress: (b) Meconium aspiration: This leads to Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS), a specific and often severe cause of respiratory distress presenting at birth or very soon after, especially in term or post-term babies. It causes chemical pneumonitis, airway obstruction, and can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Neonatal sepsis & (c) Pneumonia: These are critical causes of respiratory distress in newborns and can present in the first 24 hours. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs, and sepsis is a systemic infection that can certainly involve the lungs and cause respiratory failure. These are very important, but MAS is a distinct syndrome specifically causing respiratory distress due to aspiration of meconium. Distinguishing the "most common" depends on the population (preterm vs. term) and specific definitions. All three (sepsis, MAS, pneumonia) are significant. However, MAS is a direct cause of a specific "syndrome" of respiratory distress related to birth events.
  • (d) Air embolism: This is a rare cause of respiratory distress in newborns, usually associated with invasive procedures or trauma. It is not considered a common cause.

Note: The "most common" can be tricky. If the question implicitly refers to premature infants, surfactant deficiency (classic RDS) would be paramount. For term infants, TTN is common but often milder. Among severe causes in term/post-term infants listed, MAS is very significant. Sepsis/pneumonia is also a critical and common cause across gestations.

👂16. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of otitis media?

  • (a) Fever.
  • (b) Ear pain.
  • (c) Tinnitus.
  • (d) Pus discharge.

Correct Answer: (c) Tinnitus.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🔔Tinnitus (ringing or buzzing in the ears) can occur with various ear conditions, including some forms of otitis media, especially otitis media with effusion (OME) or more chronic conditions. However, in acute otitis media (AOM), particularly in young children, the primary and most prominent symptoms are ear pain (otalgia) and fever. Pus discharge occurs if the tympanic membrane (eardrum) perforates. While tinnitus *can* be present, it's less commonly reported as a primary or defining feature of typical AOM compared to the other options, especially in young children who may not be able to describe it.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Fever: Fever is a common systemic sign of infection, and it frequently accompanies acute otitis media, especially in children.
  • (b) Ear pain (Otalgia): This is a hallmark symptom of acute otitis media, caused by pressure and inflammation in the middle ear. Young children may exhibit this as irritability, pulling at the ear, or crying.
  • (d) Pus discharge (Otorrhea): If the pressure from fluid and pus in the middle ear causes the eardrum to rupture, purulent discharge will be seen coming from the ear canal. This is a definite sign of otitis media (often AOM with perforation).

🧬17. Which of the following conditions has a genetic basis?

  • (a) Diverticulitis.
  • (b) Peptic ulcers.
  • (c) Sickle cell disease.
  • (d) Gastritis.

Correct Answer: (c) Sickle cell disease.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

🔴Sickle cell disease (also known as sickle cell anemia) is an inherited genetic disorder of hemoglobin. It is caused by a mutation in the gene that tells the body to make hemoglobin. Individuals inherit two copies of the sickle cell gene (one from each parent) to have the disease. It follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Diverticulitis: Diverticulitis is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can form in the walls of the intestines, particularly the colon. While a predisposition or risk factors might have some genetic influence (e.g., related to connective tissue structure), it is primarily associated with factors like a low-fiber diet, age, and lifestyle. It is not a single-gene disorder like sickle cell disease.
  • (b) Peptic ulcers: Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, esophagus, or small intestine. Common causes include infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria and long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). While there might be some genetic susceptibility to H. pylori infection or how one's body responds, peptic ulcers are not primarily classified as a genetic disease in the way sickle cell disease is.
  • (d) Gastritis: Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining. It can be caused by various factors, including H. pylori infection, excessive alcohol use, NSAIDs, stress, and autoimmune conditions. Some rare forms of gastritis might have a genetic link (e.g., autoimmune gastritis can have genetic predispositions), but common gastritis is not primarily a genetic disease.

🦠18. The commonest causative organism for tonsillitis in children belong to

  • (a) Bacilli.
  • (b) Staphylococci.
  • (c) Pneumococci.
  • (d) Streptococci.

Correct Answer: (d) Streptococci.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

👄The most common bacterial cause of acute tonsillitis (and pharyngitis) in children is Group A Streptococcus (GAS), scientifically known as *Streptococcus pyogenes*. This is often referred to as "strep throat." While viruses are also a very common cause of tonsillitis overall, when it's bacterial, Group A Streptococcus is the leading culprit.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Bacilli: Bacilli are a shape of bacteria (rod-shaped). While some bacilli can cause infections, they are not the primary common cause of typical tonsillitis in children (e.g., Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria which involves tonsils, but this is less common due to vaccination).
  • (b) Staphylococci: Staphylococci (e.g., *Staphylococcus aureus*) can cause various infections but are not the most frequent cause of acute tonsillitis compared to streptococci. They might be found in the throat but are less likely to be the primary pathogen for typical tonsillitis.
  • (c) Pneumococci: Pneumococci (*Streptococcus pneumoniae*) are a common cause of pneumonia, otitis media, and meningitis, but they are less commonly implicated as the primary cause of acute tonsillitis compared to Group A Streptococcus.

🌡️19. The most appropriate nursing management of a child in sickle cell crisis involves;

  • (a) administration of iron dextran.
  • (b) routine communication and de-worming.
  • (c) analgesics and blood transfusion.
  • (d) antibiotic and folic acids.

Correct Answer: (c) analgesics and blood transfusion (with nuance that transfusions are for specific types/severity of crisis).

Explanation for Correct Answer:

💊Management of a sickle cell crisis, particularly a vaso-occlusive crisis (VOC), focuses on several key areas:

  • Pain Management (Analgesics): Pain is often severe and is the hallmark of VOCs. Effective analgesia, often starting with NSAIDs and progressing to opioids, is crucial.
  • Hydration: Intravenous or oral fluids help to reduce blood viscosity and improve circulation.
  • Oxygen Therapy: If there is hypoxia.
  • Blood Transfusion: Blood transfusions are indicated in certain types of crises or complications, such as severe anemia (e.g., in aplastic or splenic sequestration crisis), acute chest syndrome, stroke, or prior to surgery. Simple VOC might not always require transfusion unless it's very severe or associated with a significant drop in hemoglobin.
Option (c) includes analgesics (essential for VOC) and blood transfusion (important for certain severe crises or complications). Option (d) includes antibiotics (often given if infection is suspected as a trigger or complication, e.g., acute chest syndrome) and folic acid (a routine supplement for sickle cell patients due to increased red cell turnover, but not the primary acute crisis management for pain/complications). Considering the options, (c) addresses the acute, severe aspects of a crisis directly (pain) and a major intervention for complications (transfusion). (d) antibiotic and folic acid are also relevant but folic acid is more maintenance and antibiotics are for infection. Let's refine. For a *general* sickle cell crisis (most commonly VOC): 1. **Analgesia** is paramount. 2. Hydration. 3. Oxygen if hypoxic. 4. Identifying and treating precipitants (e.g., infection with **antibiotics**). 5. **Blood transfusions** for specific indications (severe anemia, acute chest, stroke prevention). 6. **Folic acid** is a maintenance therapy. Comparing (c) and (d): (c) Analgesics (key) + Blood transfusion (for specific situations). (d) Antibiotic (if infection) + Folic acid (maintenance). If a child is "in sickle cell crisis," severe pain is almost always present. Thus, analgesics are vital. Blood transfusions are for more severe or specific types of crises. If the crisis is triggered by infection, antibiotics are key. The "most appropriate *nursing management*" would involve administering prescribed treatments. Given the options, analgesics are central. Blood transfusion is a major intervention for certain crises. This makes (c) strong. If the crisis is severe and complicated (e.g., acute chest syndrome), both analgesia, antibiotics, and potentially transfusions would be involved. The question is broad. Let's re-evaluate "most appropriate". Analgesics for pain are nearly universal in VOC. Blood transfusions are less universal for every crisis but are critical for some. Antibiotics are for suspected infection. Folic acid is ongoing. Option (c) focuses on direct symptom relief and a major intervention for severe complications.

Considering the options provided as pairs:

The core components of managing an acute crisis, especially a vaso-occlusive one (the most common), are pain relief (analgesics) and hydration. Oxygen is given if the patient is hypoxic. Antibiotics are used if an infection is a trigger or there's a risk of infection. Blood transfusions are reserved for specific severe complications like acute chest syndrome, stroke, severe anemic states from splenic sequestration or aplastic crisis, or pre-operatively. Folic acid is important for chronic management due to high red cell turnover, but not the primary intervention for an acute crisis itself.

Option (c) "analgesics and blood transfusion": Analgesics are definitely a core part. Blood transfusions are for specific, often severe, scenarios within a crisis.

Option (d) "antibiotic and folic acids": Antibiotics if infection is present/suspected. Folic acid is more for long-term management. This doesn't address the immediate pain of most crises as directly as (c) does for common crisis scenarios. Analgesia is almost always needed.

Therefore, (c) is arguably the best choice among the given pairs as it includes a cornerstone (analgesics) and a critical intervention for severe forms/complications of crisis (transfusion).

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) administration of iron dextran: Children with sickle cell disease usually have iron overload due to chronic hemolysis and frequent transfusions (if given). Iron administration is generally contraindicated unless there is proven iron deficiency, which is rare in this context. Iron overload can be harmful.
  • (b) routine communication and de-worming: Good communication is always important in nursing. De-worming is a general health measure and not specific acute management for a sickle cell crisis.
  • (d) antibiotic and folic acids: While antibiotics are used if infection triggers the crisis or is a complication, and folic acid is a routine supplement for patients with sickle cell disease, this option doesn't capture the immediate priority of pain management (analgesics) or interventions like transfusion for severe anemic complications as directly as option (c) does for common crisis scenarios. Analgesia is almost always needed.

💉20. Contact with which of the following HIV infected materials should be considered eligible for post exposure prophylaxis treatment?

  • (a) Breast milk from cracked nipple.
  • (b) Intact skin exposed to baby's stool.
  • (c) Broken skin exposed to small volume of amniotic fluid.
  • (d) Oral mucosa exposed to saliva through kissing.

Correct Answer: (c) Broken skin exposed to small volume of amniotic fluid.

Explanation for Correct Answer:

⚠️Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV is considered when there has been a significant exposure to potentially infectious body fluids. Amniotic fluid is considered potentially infectious for HIV. Exposure of broken skin (non-intact skin, e.g., a cut, abrasion, or dermatitis) to amniotic fluid from an HIV-infected individual constitutes a significant exposure that would typically warrant consideration for PEP. The risk increases with the volume of fluid and the viral load of the source.

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

  • (a) Breast milk from cracked nipple: Breast milk from an HIV-infected mother is infectious. If a cracked nipple leads to blood in the milk, the risk of transmission (e.g., to an infant) increases. For a healthcare worker exposure, if there's exposure of mucous membranes or non-intact skin to breast milk (especially if bloody), PEP might be considered. However, option (c) presents a clearer-cut scenario of broken skin to a known infectious fluid. If this refers to infant exposure, the context would be prevention of mother-to-child transmission (PMTCT) strategies. If it's occupational, contact of *your* broken skin or mucous membrane to bloody breast milk would be a concern. Between (a) and (c), amniotic fluid exposure to broken skin is a very standard indication for PEP assessment. Breast milk from a cracked nipple also poses a risk if there is blood and exposure to mucous membranes or non-intact skin. However, amniotic fluid is listed as a fluid with risk. This is a bit tricky as both (a) and (c) could be considered. Often, amniotic fluid is clearly listed as high risk. Let's re-evaluate. *Blood is the highest risk*. Amniotic fluid is also considered high risk. Breast milk is a risk for MTCT. If the breast milk from a cracked nipple is visibly bloody, it increases risk. Option (c) specifies broken skin + amniotic fluid, which is a direct route. This seems the most definitive indication among the options for PEP assessment.
  • (b) Intact skin exposed to baby's stool: Stool (feces) is not considered infectious for HIV unless it is visibly contaminated with blood. Furthermore, exposure of *intact* skin to even potentially infectious fluids generally does not warrant PEP, as intact skin is a good barrier.
  • (d) Oral mucosa exposed to saliva through kissing: Saliva is not considered infectious for HIV transmission unless it is visibly contaminated with blood (e.g., from bleeding gums). Casual kissing is not a risk for HIV transmission, and exposure of oral mucosa to saliva (without visible blood) would not be an indication for PEP.

Clarification: Both (a) if breast milk is bloody and involves non-intact skin/mucous membrane exposure, and (c) are significant. However, amniotic fluid is consistently listed as a fluid for which PEP is indicated after percutaneous or mucous membrane/non-intact skin exposure. Given the options, (c) is a very clear indication for PEP consideration.

Fill in the blank spaces (10 marks)

👃21. An abnormal discharge of mucus from the nose is termed as __________.

Answer: Rhinorrhea

Explanation:

🤧Rhinorrhea is the medical term for a runny nose, characterized by a free discharge of thin nasal mucus. The word comes from Greek: "rhino-" meaning nose, and "-rrhea" meaning flow or discharge.

👁️22. A condition of increased pressure within the eyeball, causing gradual loss of sight is called __________.

Answer: Glaucoma

Explanation:

💧Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve, the health of which is vital for vision. This damage is often caused by an abnormally high pressure inside your eye (intraocular pressure). If untreated, it can lead to gradual, irreversible vision loss, often starting with peripheral vision.

💫23. An abnormal feeling of rotation of one's head due to disease affecting the vesibular nerve of the ear is known as __________.

Answer: Vertigo

Explanation:

😵Vertigo is a sensation of spinning dizziness, as if the room or oneself is revolving. It is often caused by a problem with the inner ear (including the vestibular nerve, which sends balance signals to the brain), brain, or sensory nerve pathways.

👓24. Patients with short sightedness are suffering from a condition called __________.

Answer: Myopia

Explanation:

🤓Myopia, commonly known as short-sightedness or near-sightedness, is a refractive error where distant objects appear blurred while close objects can be seen clearly. It occurs when the eyeball is too long or the cornea/lens is too curved, causing light to focus in front of the retina instead of directly on it.

👁️‍🗨️25. Inflammation of the cornea and iris of the eye is termed as __________.

Answer: Keratoiritis (or Iridocyclitis with keratitis / Anterior uveitis with keratitis)

Explanation:

炎症Inflammation of the cornea is called keratitis. Inflammation of the iris is called iritis. When both the cornea and the iris are inflamed, the term keratoiritis can be used. Iritis is a type of anterior uveitis. If the ciliary body is also involved with the iris, it's called iridocyclitis. So, keratoiritis specifically points to inflammation of both cornea and iris.

🩸26. A severe chronic blood disorder in which the red blood cells have abnormal shape and do not carry normal hemoglobin is referred to as __________.

Answer: Sickle cell anemia (or Sickle cell disease)

Explanation:

🌙Sickle cell anemia is a common inherited blood disorder where red blood cells, normally round, become crescent or "sickle" shaped. These abnormal cells contain an atypical type of hemoglobin (hemoglobin S). Sickle-shaped cells can block blood flow in vessels, causing pain and organ damage, and they also break down more rapidly, leading to chronic anemia.

🫁27. Inflammation of the lung parenchyma in children is called __________.

Answer: Pneumonia

Explanation:

💨Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs (alveoli, which are part of the lung parenchyma - the functional tissue of the lung) in one or both lungs. The air sacs may fill with fluid or pus (purulent material), causing cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing.

📈28. Increased respiratory rate noted in children with respiratory distress is termed as __________.

Answer: Tachypnea

Explanation:

💨Tachypnea (or tachypnoea) is the medical term for abnormally rapid breathing. It is a common sign of respiratory distress in children, as the body tries to compensate for inadequate oxygen intake or to eliminate excess carbon dioxide.

🦴29. A type of traction applied on a child when both legs are extended vertically to reduce fracture of femur is termed as __________.

Answer: Bryant's traction (also known as Gallow's traction)

Explanation:

👶Bryant's traction (sometimes referred to as Gallow's traction) is a type of skin traction used for treating fractures of the femur (thigh bone) or congenital hip dislocations in young children, typically under 2 years of age or weighing less than 12-14 kg. In this setup, both legs are suspended vertically in the air at a 90-degree angle to the hips, with the child's buttocks slightly elevated off the bed. This uses the child's body weight to provide countertraction.

💧30. Continued incontinence of urine past the age of toilet training is termed as __________.

Answer: Enuresis

Explanation:

🛏️Enuresis is the medical term for involuntary urination, especially by children at an age when they should already have bladder control (typically past the age of 5). It can occur during the day (diurnal enuresis) or, more commonly, at night (nocturnal enuresis or bedwetting).

SECTION B: Short Essay Questions (10 marks)

📝31. Outline five (5) common signs and symptom of nephrotic syndrome in children. (5 marks)

👶Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by a group of symptoms that indicate the kidneys are not working properly, specifically leading to excessive protein loss in the urine. Here are common signs and symptoms in children:

  1. Proteinuria (Massive Protein in Urine):🧪 This is the hallmark sign. Large amounts of protein, especially albumin, are lost from the blood into the urine because the kidney's filters (glomeruli) are damaged. This can make the urine appear foamy or frothy.
    Rationale: Damaged glomeruli lose their ability to prevent protein from passing into the urine.
  2. Edema (Swelling):💧 This is often the most noticeable symptom. Swelling typically starts around the eyes (periorbital edema), especially in the morning, and can progress to the legs, ankles, abdomen (ascites), and generalized body swelling (anasarca).
    Rationale: The loss of protein (albumin) from the blood reduces plasma oncotic pressure. Albumin helps keep fluid within the blood vessels. When albumin is low, fluid leaks out into the interstitial tissues, causing swelling. The kidneys also tend to retain sodium and water, contributing to edema.
  3. Hypoalbuminemia (Low Blood Albumin):📉 Due to the massive loss of albumin in the urine, the level of albumin in the blood becomes very low.
    Rationale: Direct consequence of proteinuria; the body cannot synthesize albumin fast enough to replace what is lost through the kidneys.
  4. Hyperlipidemia (High Blood Cholesterol and Triglycerides):🧈 Children with nephrotic syndrome often have elevated levels of cholesterol and other fats (lipids) in their blood.
    Rationale: The exact mechanism is complex, but it's thought that the liver tries to compensate for low blood protein by increasing production of various substances, including lipoproteins (which carry cholesterol and triglycerides). Reduced plasma oncotic pressure might also stimulate hepatic lipoprotein synthesis.
  5. Weight Gain:⚖️ This is primarily due to fluid retention causing the edema, rather than an increase in body fat or muscle.
    Rationale: Accumulation of excess fluid in the body's tissues contributes to an overall increase in body weight.
  6. Fatigue and Lethargy:😴 Children may feel unusually tired, weak, or lack energy.
    Rationale: Can be due to general illness, poor appetite, anemia (if present), or the metabolic burden of the syndrome.
  7. Loss of Appetite (Anorexia):🍽️ Children may not feel like eating, which can contribute to malnutrition if prolonged.
    Rationale: May be due to ascites causing abdominal discomfort, general malaise, or the effects of the underlying disease process.
  8. Increased Susceptibility to Infections:🦠 Children with nephrotic syndrome are more prone to infections, especially bacterial infections like peritonitis (infection of the abdominal lining) and cellulitis.
    Rationale: Loss of immunoglobulins (antibodies, which are proteins) in the urine can weaken the immune system. Edematous tissues can also be more susceptible to infection. Steroid treatment, often used for nephrotic syndrome, also suppresses the immune system.

📝32. Outline five (5) ways of preventing the transmission of trachoma in the community. (5 marks)

👁️Trachoma is a bacterial infection (caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*) that affects the eyes and is a leading cause of preventable blindness worldwide. It spreads through direct contact with eye or nose discharge from infected individuals, and indirectly through contaminated hands, clothing, or flies that have been in contact with infected discharge. The World Health Organization (WHO) promotes the SAFE strategy for trachoma control. Here are ways to prevent its transmission:

  1. Surgery for Trichiasis (S in SAFE):⚕️ While this is a treatment for the blinding stage (trichiasis - inturned eyelashes), preventing progression to this stage through other measures is key. Promptly identifying and referring individuals with trichiasis for corrective surgery prevents further corneal damage and vision loss, and can reduce the infectious reservoir if active infection is also treated.
    Rationale: Correcting inturned eyelashes stops the constant abrasion of the cornea, preventing blindness and reducing associated discomfort that might lead to eye rubbing and spread.
  2. Antibiotics (A in SAFE):💊 Mass drug administration (MDA) of antibiotics (usually azithromycin orally or tetracycline eye ointment) to entire communities in endemic areas helps to treat active infection and reduce the overall community burden of *Chlamydia trachomatis*. Treating infected individuals stops them from spreading the bacteria.
    Rationale: Antibiotics kill the bacteria causing trachoma, clearing active infection and interrupting the chain of transmission. MDA targets both symptomatic and asymptomatic carriers.
  3. Facial Cleanliness (F in SAFE):🧼 Promoting and practicing regular face washing, especially for children, helps to remove infectious eye and nose secretions. Clean faces are less attractive to eye-seeking flies.
    Rationale: Washing the face with soap and clean water removes the bacteria-laden discharge, reducing the source of infection and making it less likely for flies to land and pick up the bacteria.
  4. Environmental Improvement (E in SAFE):🏞️ This involves several components:
    • Access to Clean Water:💧 Providing easy access to sufficient quantities of clean water for drinking, cooking, and personal hygiene (like face and hand washing) is crucial.
    • Improved Sanitation:🚽 Proper disposal of human and animal feces reduces fly breeding sites. Eye-seeking flies (like *Musca sorbens*) breed in exposed feces. Constructing and using latrines is essential.
    • Fly Control:🦟 Reducing fly populations by managing waste, using latrines, and sometimes targeted insecticide use can decrease the mechanical transmission of trachoma by flies.
    Rationale: A clean environment reduces the presence and breeding of flies that can transmit the infection. Access to water enables better hygiene practices.
  5. Health Education and Promotion:🗣️ Educating communities about trachoma, how it spreads, and the importance of hygiene practices (face washing, hand washing, use of latrines) empowers them to take preventive actions. This should be done in a culturally sensitive manner.
    Rationale: Awareness and understanding of the disease and its transmission routes motivate behavior change and adoption of preventive measures.
  6. Promoting Hand Washing:🖐️ Regular hand washing with soap and clean water, especially after using the toilet, before eating, and after tending to someone with an eye infection, helps prevent the spread of bacteria from hands to eyes.
    Rationale: Hands are a major vehicle for transferring infectious discharge to one's own eyes or to others.
  7. Avoiding Sharing of Personal Items:🚫 Discouraging the sharing of towels, facecloths, beddings, and eye makeup that could be contaminated with eye secretions helps prevent direct and indirect transmission.
    Rationale: The bacteria can survive on these items (fomites) and be passed from one person to another.
SECTION C: Long Essay Questions (60 marks)

📝33. (a) Outline ten (10) specific interventions nurses should implement for a patient within the first 4 hours of tonsillectomy. (10 marks)

🛌Post-tonsillectomy care in the first 4 hours is critical, focusing on airway management, bleeding observation, pain control, and hydration. Here are specific nursing interventions:

  1. Maintain a Patent Airway:💨 Position the patient on their side (lateral position) or semi-prone once awake, with the head slightly lowered if tolerated. This allows saliva, mucus, and any slight ooze of blood to drain out of the mouth, preventing aspiration. Avoid the supine position immediately post-op. Rationale: Prevents aspiration of blood and secretions, which can obstruct the airway or cause laryngospasm.
  2. Monitor Vital Signs Frequently:🌡️ Assess pulse, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation (SpO2) every 15 minutes for the first hour, then every 30 minutes for the next hour, then hourly if stable, or as per hospital protocol. Rationale: Tachycardia (fast pulse), hypotension (low BP), and tachypnea (fast breathing) can be early signs of hemorrhage or shock. Decreased SpO2 indicates respiratory compromise.
  3. Observe for Signs of Bleeding (Hemorrhage):🩸 This is a major concern.
    • Look for frequent swallowing (a key sign of blood trickling down the throat).
    • Inspect vomitus for fresh (bright red) blood. Small amounts of dark old blood are common, but fresh blood is a concern.
    • Observe for restlessness, anxiety, or pallor.
    • Check the back of the throat gently with a good light source if bleeding is suspected and the patient can cooperate (but avoid disturbing the surgical site unnecessarily).
    Rationale: Early detection of post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent significant blood loss and airway compromise.
  4. Assess and Manage Pain:😖 Administer prescribed analgesics regularly (e.g., paracetamol, ibuprofen, or opioids if necessary) as per the doctor's orders and assess pain levels using an appropriate pain scale. Rationale: Significant throat pain is expected. Adequate pain control promotes comfort, encourages fluid intake, and reduces restlessness which might increase bleeding risk.
  5. Encourage Clear Fluid Intake (Once Awake and Gag Reflex Present):💧 Offer sips of cool, clear, non-acidic, non-carbonated fluids like water, apple juice (diluted), or ice chips/ice lollies once the patient is fully awake, has a gag reflex, and is not nauseated. Avoid red or brown colored fluids. Rationale: Hydration is important. Cool fluids can soothe the throat. Avoiding red/brown fluids helps distinguish between ingested fluids and fresh blood if vomiting occurs.
  6. Apply an Ice Collar:❄️ If available and tolerated, an ice collar or cold pack applied to the neck can help reduce swelling and pain. Rationale: Vasoconstriction from cold can help minimize edema and provide some analgesic effect.
  7. Monitor for Nausea and Vomiting:🤢 Administer antiemetics as prescribed if nausea or vomiting occurs. Rationale: Vomiting can be distressing, increase pain, and potentially dislodge clots at the surgical site, increasing bleeding risk.
  8. Discourage Coughing, Clearing Throat, or Blowing Nose:🤫 Advise the patient (if old enough to understand) and parents to avoid these actions. Rationale: These actions can dislodge clots from the tonsillar fossae and precipitate bleeding.
  9. Provide Oral Hygiene (Gentle):👄 If the patient can tolerate it, gentle mouth rinses with plain cool water may be allowed later in this period, but aggressive gargling should be avoided. Rationale: Helps keep the mouth clean and fresh, but must be done carefully to avoid disturbing the surgical site.
  10. Educate Patient/Parents on What to Report:🗣️ Clearly instruct the patient (if appropriate age) and parents on signs of bleeding to report immediately (e.g., spitting bright red blood, frequent swallowing, vomiting fresh blood, extreme restlessness). Rationale: Empowers them to participate in care and ensures prompt notification if complications arise.
  11. Assess Level of Consciousness and Airway Patency Regularly:🧠 Ensure the child is easily rousable and breathing without difficulty (no stridor, retractions, or gurgling sounds). Rationale: Sedation from anesthesia or analgesics can affect airway reflexes and respiratory effort.
  12. Check for Return of Gag Reflex:😮 Before offering any oral fluids, ensure the gag reflex has returned post-anesthesia. Rationale: Prevents aspiration if the protective airway reflexes are not yet fully recovered.

📝(b) Outline ten (10) nursing interventions that should be implemented during the immediate care of a patient who has undergone cataract surgery. (10 marks)

👁️Immediate post-operative care for a patient after cataract surgery focuses on ensuring safety, comfort, preventing complications (like infection, increased intraocular pressure (IOP), or injury to the operated eye), and providing education. Many cataract surgeries are day-case procedures.

  1. Monitor Vital Signs:🩺 Assess blood pressure, pulse, and respirations as per post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) or day surgery unit protocol. Rationale: To ensure cardiovascular and respiratory stability after anesthesia (local or general, though local is more common).
  2. Assess Level of Consciousness and Orientation:🧠 Especially if sedation or general anesthesia was used. Ensure the patient is alert or appropriately responsive. Rationale: To monitor recovery from anesthesia and ensure patient safety.
  3. Check the Eye Dressing/Shield:🛡️ Ensure the eye pad and shield (if applied by the surgeon) are secure and properly in place. Do not remove unless specifically instructed. Rationale: The shield protects the operated eye from accidental rubbing, pressure, or injury.
  4. Assess for Pain and Administer Analgesia:💊 Ask the patient about eye pain or discomfort. Mild discomfort or a scratchy feeling is common, but severe pain is not and should be reported. Administer mild analgesics (e.g., paracetamol) as prescribed. Rationale: To provide comfort. Severe pain could indicate complications like increased IOP or hemorrhage.
  5. Assess for Nausea and Vomiting:🤢 Administer antiemetics as prescribed if the patient experiences nausea or vomiting. Rationale: Vomiting can increase intraocular pressure, which is undesirable after eye surgery.
  6. Position the Patient Appropriately:🛌 Advise the patient to avoid lying on the operated side. Usually, lying on the back or non-operated side is recommended. Elevate the head of the bed slightly (e.g., 30 degrees) unless contraindicated. Rationale: To reduce intraocular pressure and minimize the risk of trauma to the operated eye.
  7. Provide Post-Operative Instructions (Reinforce):🗣️ Verbally reinforce and provide written instructions regarding:
    • Instillation of prescribed eye drops (antibiotics, steroids, NSAIDs).
    • Activity restrictions (e.g., avoiding bending, lifting heavy objects, strenuous activity, straining).
    • Importance of hand hygiene before touching the eye area or instilling drops.
    • When and how to wear the eye shield (e.g., at night, during naps).
    • Signs and symptoms of complications to report immediately (e.g., severe pain, sudden decrease in vision, flashing lights, excessive discharge, redness, swelling).
    • Follow-up appointment details.
    Rationale: Ensures patient understanding and compliance with the post-operative regimen, which is crucial for successful healing and prevention of complications.
  8. Monitor for Signs of Immediate Complications:⚠️ Observe for excessive bleeding or discharge from the eye (some mild tearing or slight blood-tinged discharge on the pad can be normal initially, but frank bleeding is not), sudden sharp pain, or sudden loss of vision. Report these immediately to the surgeon. Rationale: Early detection of complications like hemorrhage, acute rise in IOP, or endophthalmitis (though usually later) allows for prompt intervention.
  9. Offer Light Refreshments (if NPO status lifted): Once the patient is stable, alert, and able to tolerate oral intake, offer light refreshments if they were NPO (nothing by mouth) before the procedure. Rationale: To provide comfort and hydration, especially for day-case patients before discharge.
  10. Ensure Safe Discharge Arrangements:🚗 Confirm that the patient has a responsible adult to escort them home and assist them, as vision in the operated eye will be blurry, and they may be drowsy from sedation. Rationale: Patient safety is paramount. Driving or navigating alone immediately after cataract surgery is unsafe.
  11. Instruct on Protective Measures:🕶️ Advise the patient to wear sunglasses outdoors or in bright light. Rationale: The eye may be sensitive to light (photophobia) after surgery, and sunglasses provide comfort and protection.
  12. Do Not Rub or Press on the Eye:🚫 Emphasize this crucial instruction to the patient. Rationale: Rubbing can dislodge the intraocular lens, cause injury, or introduce infection.

📝34. (a) Outline six (6) of the nurses concerns for a child brought in with respiratory distress syndrome. (6 marks)

👶When a child is brought in with Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) or significant respiratory distress, nurses have several immediate and critical concerns related to maintaining life and preventing deterioration. These concerns guide their assessment and interventions:

  1. Inadequate Oxygenation and Hypoxia:📉 The primary concern is whether the child is getting enough oxygen into their blood. Signs like cyanosis (bluish discoloration of skin, lips, nail beds), low oxygen saturation (SpO2) readings, and altered mental status (irritability, lethargy) indicate hypoxia. Rationale: Hypoxia can rapidly lead to cellular damage, organ dysfunction (especially brain and heart), and can be life-threatening if not corrected promptly.
  2. Impaired Gas Exchange (Ventilation Failure):💨 Beyond just oxygenation, the nurse is concerned about the child's ability to effectively remove carbon dioxide (CO2). Signs of CO2 retention (hypercapnia) can include lethargy, decreased responsiveness, and eventually respiratory acidosis. Rationale: Ineffective ventilation leads to CO2 buildup, causing respiratory acidosis which can depress cardiac function and neurological status.
  3. Increased Work of Breathing and Fatigue:😥 The nurse observes for signs of increased respiratory effort such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), nasal flaring, grunting, use of accessory muscles, and retractions (chest indrawing). The concern is that the child will eventually tire out from this excessive effort. Rationale: Sustained increased work of breathing can lead to respiratory muscle fatigue, exhaustion, and ultimately respiratory arrest if support is not provided.
  4. Airway Patency and Potential Obstruction:🚧 Is the airway open and clear? The nurse listens for abnormal sounds like stridor (high-pitched inspiratory sound indicating upper airway obstruction), wheezing (indicating lower airway narrowing), or gurgling (suggesting secretions). Rationale: A compromised airway prevents effective oxygen entry and CO2 removal, regardless of respiratory effort. It's a medical emergency.
  5. Potential for Rapid Deterioration and Respiratory Arrest:⚠️ Children, especially infants, have limited physiological reserves. Their condition can worsen very quickly. The nurse is constantly vigilant for subtle changes that may indicate impending respiratory failure. Rationale: Early recognition of deterioration allows for timely escalation of care (e.g., intubation, mechanical ventilation) before a full respiratory arrest occurs.
  6. Identifying the Underlying Cause and Associated Complications:🔍 While immediate supportive care is paramount, the nurse is also concerned about what is causing the respiratory distress (e.g., pneumonia, asthma, foreign body aspiration, sepsis, heart failure, classic RDS in a premature infant). Understanding the cause guides specific treatments. They also watch for complications like pneumothorax. Rationale: Treating the underlying cause is essential for resolution of the respiratory distress. Different causes require different specific medical interventions.
  7. Fluid and Nutritional Status:💧 Children with respiratory distress may have difficulty feeding due to increased work of breathing and may also have increased insensible fluid losses. Dehydration can worsen their condition. Rationale: Adequate hydration is crucial for thinning secretions and maintaining circulatory volume. Poor nutrition can weaken the child further.
  8. Anxiety and Fear (Child and Parents):😟 Respiratory distress is frightening for the child and their parents. High anxiety levels can exacerbate the child's distress. Rationale: Providing emotional support and clear communication can help reduce anxiety, which can improve the child's cooperation and reduce metabolic demands.

📝(b) Outline, with rationale, seven (7) specific nursing interventions that should be implemented for a child admitted with status asthmaticus. (14 marks)

🏥Status asthmaticus is a severe, prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to standard bronchodilator treatments. It is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate and aggressive nursing and medical intervention.

  1. Administer High-Flow Oxygen Therapy:💨Intervention: Provide humidified oxygen via a face mask (non-rebreather if severe) or nasal cannula at a high flow rate to maintain oxygen saturation (SpO2) above 94% (or as per specific hospital protocol). Rationale: Status asthmaticus causes significant bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation, leading to severe hypoxia (low blood oxygen). Supplemental oxygen helps to correct hypoxemia, improve tissue oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Humidification prevents drying of airway secretions.
  2. Administer Rapid-Acting Inhaled Bronchodilators Frequently and Continuously:들이쉬다Intervention: Administer short-acting beta2-agonists (SABA) like Salbutamol (Albuterol) via nebulizer, often continuously or at frequent intervals (e.g., every 20 minutes for the first hour) as prescribed. May also include inhaled anticholinergics like Ipratropium bromide, often given in combination with SABAs. Rationale: SABAs relax bronchial smooth muscle, causing bronchodilation and relieving airflow obstruction, which is the primary problem. Anticholinergics provide additive bronchodilation by blocking muscarinic receptors in the airways. Frequent or continuous administration is needed due to the severity and persistence of bronchospasm.
  3. Administer Systemic Corticosteroids:💊Intervention: Administer systemic corticosteroids (e.g., oral prednisolone, intravenous hydrocortisone, or methylprednisolone) as prescribed by the doctor, without delay. Rationale: Corticosteroids reduce airway inflammation and edema, and decrease mucus production. Their effect is not immediate for bronchodilation (takes hours), but they are crucial for treating the underlying inflammation and preventing relapse or worsening of the asthma attack. Early administration is key.
  4. Establish and Maintain Intravenous (IV) Access:💉Intervention: Secure IV access promptly for administration of fluids and medications. Administer IV fluids (e.g., isotonic saline) as prescribed. Rationale: IV access is essential for administering emergency medications (like IV corticosteroids, IV magnesium sulfate, or IV aminophylline if indicated) and for rehydration. Children in status asthmaticus may be dehydrated due to increased insensible losses from tachypnea, decreased oral intake, and vomiting. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, maintain hydration, and keep airway secretions looser.
  5. Perform Continuous Cardiorespiratory Monitoring and Frequent Respiratory Assessments:💓Intervention: Continuously monitor heart rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation (SpO2). Perform frequent, focused respiratory assessments including auscultation of breath sounds (presence and quality of wheezing, air entry), work of breathing (retractions, nasal flaring, use of accessory muscles), and level of consciousness. Note any changes like a "silent chest" (ominous sign of severe obstruction with poor air entry). Rationale: Close monitoring allows for early detection of worsening respiratory status, response to treatment, or development of complications (e.g., respiratory fatigue, impending respiratory arrest, pneumothorax). A silent chest, despite severe distress, indicates minimal air movement and is a pre-arrest sign.
  6. Position for Optimal Lung Expansion and Comfort:🪑Intervention: Assist the child into a position of comfort that facilitates breathing, usually an upright position (e.g., sitting up, leaning forward on a table – "tripod position"). Avoid forcing the child to lie flat. Rationale: An upright position allows for maximum diaphragmatic excursion and lung expansion, reducing the work of breathing. Allowing the child to assume their position of comfort minimizes distress.
  7. Provide a Calm, Reassuring Environment and Emotional Support:🤗Intervention: Maintain a calm demeanor. Explain procedures simply to the child (if age-appropriate) and parents. Reassure them that help is being provided. Allow parents to stay with the child if possible and appropriate. Rationale: Anxiety and fear can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and increase the child's work of breathing and oxygen demand. A calm environment and emotional support can help reduce the child's and parents' anxiety, promoting better cooperation with treatments.
  8. Monitor for Side Effects of Medications:⚠️Intervention: Be vigilant for potential side effects of medications, such as tremors, tachycardia, palpitations, and agitation from SABAs; hyperglycemia or hypertension from corticosteroids. Rationale: While medications are life-saving, they can have side effects. Monitoring helps in managing these or adjusting treatment if they become severe.
  9. Prepare for Potential Escalation of Care:🚀Intervention: Be aware of the signs indicating a need for more aggressive interventions, such as admission to a Pediatric Intensive Care Unit (PICU), administration of IV bronchodilators (e.g., magnesium sulfate, aminophylline, or terbutaline), or even intubation and mechanical ventilation. Ensure emergency equipment is readily available. Rationale: Status asthmaticus can progress despite initial treatment. Nurses must be prepared for rapid deterioration and assist with advanced life support measures if needed.

📝35. (a) List five (5) signs and symptoms that commonly occur in HIV infected children. (5 marks)

👶HIV infection in children can manifest with a wide range of signs and symptoms, often related to immune system dysfunction and susceptibility to opportunistic infections. The presentation can vary depending on the child's age and stage of infection. Here are five common ones:

  1. Failure to Thrive (FTT) / Poor Weight Gain and Growth Delay:📉 Many HIV-infected children experience difficulty gaining weight and growing at a normal rate for their age. This can be due to poor appetite, malabsorption, chronic infections, or increased metabolic demands. Rationale: HIV can affect nutrient absorption and utilization, and chronic illness places increased energy demands on the body.
  2. Recurrent or Persistent Infections:🔁 Children with HIV have a weakened immune system, making them highly susceptible to frequent, severe, or unusual infections. These can include:
    • Oral thrush (candidiasis) that is persistent or recurrent.
    • Recurrent bacterial infections like pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, or skin infections.
    • Persistent diarrhea.
    • Opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP/PCP) in severe immunosuppression.
    Rationale: HIV progressively destroys CD4+ T-lymphocytes, which are crucial for immune defense against various pathogens.
  3. Generalized Lymphadenopathy (Swollen Lymph Glands):🔗 Persistent and widespread swelling of lymph nodes in multiple areas (e.g., neck, armpits, groin) is a common finding. Rationale: Lymph nodes are part of the immune system and become reactive and enlarged as the body tries to fight the chronic HIV infection and other co-infections.
  4. Hepatosplenomegaly (Enlarged Liver and Spleen):🩺 The liver and spleen may become enlarged. Rationale: This can be due to the body's response to chronic infection, direct viral effects, or involvement with other opportunistic conditions.
  5. Developmental Delay or Neurological Problems:🧠 HIV can affect the developing brain, leading to delays in reaching developmental milestones (e.g., sitting, walking, talking). Some children may develop neurological complications such as progressive encephalopathy, seizures, or motor deficits. Rationale: HIV can directly infect brain cells or cause inflammation in the central nervous system, impacting neurological development and function.
  6. Chronic Cough or Respiratory Symptoms:🗣️ Due to recurrent lung infections or conditions like lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis (LIP), which is common in HIV-infected children.
  7. Skin Rashes or Lesions:🖐️ Various skin problems, including persistent dermatitis, fungal skin infections, or viral rashes (e.g., molluscum contagiosum) can occur.

📝(b) Outline fifteen (15) interventions that should be implemented during management of a child admitted in sickle cell crisis until discharge. (15 marks)

🏥Managing a child admitted with sickle cell crisis involves a comprehensive, multidisciplinary approach aimed at relieving pain, managing complications, providing supportive care, and educating the family. Care extends from the acute phase through to discharge planning.

  1. Prompt and Aggressive Pain Assessment and Management:😖Intervention: Regularly assess pain using an age-appropriate pain scale (e.g., FLACC, Wong-Baker FACES, Numeric). Administer prescribed analgesics (e.g., NSAIDs, paracetamol, opioids like morphine) on a regular schedule and as needed (PRN) for breakthrough pain. Consider non-pharmacological methods (e.g., heat packs, distraction). Rationale: Pain is the hallmark of vaso-occlusive crisis (VOC) and can be severe. Effective and timely pain relief is a priority to improve comfort, reduce physiological stress, and promote rest.
  2. Ensure Adequate Hydration:💧Intervention: Administer intravenous (IV) fluids as prescribed (e.g., D5W with 0.25% or 0.45% saline) at a maintenance or higher rate to ensure good hydration. Encourage oral fluids if tolerated. Monitor intake and output. Rationale: Hydration helps to reduce blood viscosity, improve microvascular perfusion, and potentially reduce sickling and vaso-occlusion.
  3. Administer Oxygen Therapy as Indicated:💨Intervention: Monitor oxygen saturation (SpO2). Administer supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula or face mask if SpO2 is below 92-94% or if there are signs of hypoxia or acute chest syndrome. Rationale: Hypoxia can promote sickling. Oxygen therapy aims to correct hypoxemia and improve tissue oxygenation.
  4. Monitor Vital Signs and Respiratory Status Closely:🌡️Intervention: Regularly monitor temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure, and SpO2. Assess for signs of respiratory distress (tachypnea, cough, chest pain, retractions) which might indicate acute chest syndrome (ACS). Rationale: To detect early signs of complications like infection, ACS, or cardiovascular instability.
  5. Administer Antibiotics if Infection is Suspected or Confirmed:💊Intervention: Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics as prescribed if fever is present or infection (a common trigger for crisis) is suspected, pending culture results. Rationale: Children with sickle cell disease are prone to infections. Prompt treatment of infection is crucial as it can precipitate or worsen a crisis.
  6. Facilitate Blood Transfusions as Prescribed:🩸Intervention: If ordered (e.g., for severe anemia, ACS, stroke, splenic sequestration), prepare for and administer blood transfusions (simple or exchange) safely, monitoring for transfusion reactions. Rationale: Transfusions increase the proportion of normal red blood cells, improve oxygen-carrying capacity, and reduce the percentage of sickle cells, thereby alleviating some complications.
  7. Monitor for Complications:⚠️Intervention: Vigilantly assess for signs of ACS (chest pain, fever, cough, new infiltrate on X-ray), stroke (neurological changes), splenic sequestration (sudden pallor, abdominal distension, shock), aplastic crisis (severe drop in Hb), priapism, or DVT. Rationale: Early detection of these life-threatening complications allows for prompt and specific interventions.
  8. Provide Folic Acid Supplementation:🌿Intervention: Administer daily folic acid as prescribed. Rationale: Chronic hemolysis in sickle cell disease leads to increased red blood cell turnover, requiring more folic acid for new red cell production.
  9. Promote Rest and Comfort:🛌Intervention: Minimize unnecessary disturbances. Position the child comfortably. Encourage rest periods. Rationale: Rest reduces metabolic demands and oxygen consumption, which can be beneficial during a crisis. Comfort measures aid in pain management.
  10. Maintain Optimal Body Temperature:☀️Intervention: Keep the child warm and avoid exposure to cold, as cold can precipitate sickling. Manage fever with antipyretics. Rationale: Cold can trigger vasoconstriction and increase sickling. Fever increases metabolic demand and fluid loss.
  11. Provide Psychosocial Support to Child and Family:🤗Intervention: Offer emotional support, listen to concerns, and provide clear explanations. Involve child life specialists if available. Rationale: Hospitalization and pain can be very stressful for the child and family. Support helps them cope.
  12. Educate Child and Family on Crisis Prevention and Management:🗣️Intervention: Reinforce knowledge about triggers of crisis (e.g., dehydration, infection, cold, stress), importance of hydration, prophylactic medications (e.g., penicillin, hydroxyurea if prescribed), recognizing early signs of crisis, and when to seek medical attention. Rationale: Empowers the family to manage the condition effectively at home and prevent future crises.
  13. Ensure Adequate Nutrition:🍎Intervention: Encourage a balanced diet when tolerated. Monitor appetite and nutritional intake. Rationale: Good nutrition supports overall health and immune function, which is important in a chronic condition.
  14. Coordinate with Multidisciplinary Team:🤝Intervention: Liaise with doctors, hematologists, physiotherapists, social workers, and other team members to ensure comprehensive care. Rationale: A team approach ensures all aspects of the child's care are addressed.
  15. Prepare for Discharge:🏡Intervention: Ensure the child's pain is well-controlled on oral analgesics, they are afebrile, tolerating oral fluids, and stable. Confirm follow-up appointments, provide necessary prescriptions, and ensure the family understands the discharge plan and home care instructions. Rationale: A well-planned discharge ensures a smooth transition to home care and continued management.
  16. Monitor Neurological Status:🧠Intervention: Perform regular neurological checks (level of consciousness, speech, motor strength, coordination) especially if there's any concern for stroke. Rationale: Stroke is a serious complication of sickle cell disease, and early detection is crucial.
  17. Encourage Gentle Range of Motion Exercises (when pain allows):🤸Intervention: If the child is stable and pain is manageable, encourage gentle movement or passive range of motion exercises if mobility is limited for extended periods. Rationale: Helps prevent joint stiffness and complications of immobility, but should not exacerbate pain.
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