Paediatrics Week 1 Exam - Nurses Revision

Welcome to your Pediatrics Week 1 Exam

40 Questions, 30 MCQ's and 10 Fill-in's.

March 24, 2025

1. What is the primary difference between hyperthyroidism and thyrotoxicosis?

a) The level of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream

b) The presence of symptoms such as weight loss and rapid heartbeat

c) The anatomical location of the thyroid gland

d) The autoimmune involvement in thyroid dysfunction

2. Which term is used to describe the autoimmune disorder that is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

a) Hypothyroidism

b) Cretinism

c) Graves' disease

d) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

3. Which term describes puberty occurring at an unusually early age?

a) Delayed puberty

b) Precocious puberty

c) Adolescent puberty

d) Normal puberty

4. Which type of precocious puberty is more common overall and characterized by activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?

a) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)-dependent

b) GnRH-independent

c) Central precocious puberty

d) Peripheral precocious puberty

5. What is the term for the life-threatening condition characterized by an extreme exacerbation of hyperthyroidism symptoms?

a) Graves' disease

b) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

c) Thyroid storm

d) Cretinism

6. What is the term for the clinical state characterized by acute onset of hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, edema, and oliguria following an infective illness?

a) Nephrotic syndrome

b) Nephritic syndrome

c) STI

d) Chronic kidney disease

7. Which condition is characterized by a fluid collection within the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum or along the spermatic cord?

a) Testicular torsion

b) Epididymitis

c) Hydrocele

d) Varicocele

8. Which condition results in itchy, red, swollen, and cracked skin, often accompanied by clear fluid oozing from affected areas?

a) Atopic dermatitis

b) Psoriasis

c) Contact dermatitis

d) Eczema

9. Which type of hydrocele occurs when the processus vaginalis remains open and communicates with the peritoneal cavity?

a) Infantile hydrocele

b) Congenital hydrocele

c) Encysted hydrocele of the cord

d) Vaginal hydrocele

10. Which term refers to the condition characterized by the protrusion of the eyeball, unique to hyperthyroidism caused by Graves' disease?

a) Exophthalmos

b) Myxedema

c) Cretinism

d) Thyroid storm

11. Which of the following best defines the term "atopic"?

a) A skin condition characterized by reddish swelling

b) A type of eczema that causes itchy and inflamed patches of skin

c) A genetic predisposition to allergic hypersensitivity reactions

d) A condition affecting the top layer of the skin

12. What is the primary characteristic of congenital cataracts?

a) Clouding of the cornea

b) Opacity of the lens of the eye

c) Retinal detachment

d) Optic nerve compression

13. Which type of congenital cataract tends to produce more visual impairment due to its size and position?

a) Anterior polar cataract

b) Posterior polar cataract

c) Lamellar cataract

d) Coronary cataract

14. Which etiological factor is associated with galactosemia and reversible oil droplet cataracts?

a) Genetic cataract

b) Metabolic cataract

c) Traumatic cataract

d) Secondary cataract

15. What complication of congenital cataracts is characterized by the buildup of fluid between layers of the retina?

a) Cloudy vision

b) Lazy eye (amblyopia)

c) Glaucoma

d) Cystoid macular edema

16. What condition can occur if there is weaker vision in one eye after congenital cataract surgery?

a) Retinal detachment

b) Squint (strabismus)

c) Pupil abnormalities

d) Infection

17. What is the primary aim of surgical management for congenital cataracts?

a) To lower intraocular pressure

b) To replace the cloudy lens and restore clear vision

c) To repair retinal detachment

d) To create a new drainage channel for aqueous humor

18. Which diagnostic test involves shining a bright direct ophthalmoscope into both eyes to estimate the size and location of the cataract within the visual axis. ?

a) Ultrasound of the posterior pole

b) Slit lamp examination

c) Intraocular pressure measurement

d) Red reflex test

19. What is the main cause of damage to the optic nerve in glaucoma?

a) Excessive tear production

b) Abnormal corneal thickness

c) Elevated intraocular pressure

d) Retinal detachment

20. Which of the following is a classic triad of symptoms associated with congenital glaucoma?

a) Blurred vision, eye pain, and halos around lights

b) Watering (epiphora), photophobia, and blepharospasm

c) Headaches, nausea, and vomiting

d) Double vision, floaters, and flashes of light

21. What is visual impairment often defined as?

a) Best corrected visual acuity of better than 20/40

b) Best corrected visual acuity of worse than 20/60

c) Best corrected visual acuity of worse than 20/20

d) Best corrected visual acuity of better than 20/60

22. Which of the following is NOT a cause of visual impairment?

a) Trauma

b) Retinitis pigmentosa

c) Normal-tension glaucoma

d) High blood pressure

23. What is the purpose of the Snellen test?

a) To measure intraocular pressure

b) To assess the integrity of the visual field

c) To evaluate the movement of the eyeballs

d) To measure visual acuity

24. Which of the following is NOT a common cause or trigger of skin allergies?

a) Insect Bites and Stings

b) Dust Mites

c) Dairy

d) Cotton Clothing

25. Which type of allergen can cause symptoms such as gastrointestinal disturbances and vomiting?

a) Inhalant allergens

b) Ingestant allergens

c) Injectant allergens

d) Contactant allergens

26. What is the first-line antibiotic for treating pneumonia in children aged 12 months up to 3 years?

a) Oral Amoxicillin

b) Oral Ciprofloxacin

c) Intravenous Gentamicin

d) Oral Erythromycin

27. What is the immediate action to be taken for a child with severe pneumonia or very severe disease before referral to a hospital?

a) Administer oral rehydration solution (ORS)

b) Administer the first dose of Ampicillin or Gentamicin or both

c) Apply a warm compress to the child's chest

d) Give antipyretics to reduce fever

28. How should a healthcare provider manage dehydration using Plan C for a child with severe dehydration?

a) Administer oral rehydration solution (ORS) and encourage breastfeeding

b) Set up an intravenous (IV) line immediately and give IV fluids rapidly

c) Provide dietary management and hygiene education to the caregiver

d) Give the child antibiotics and antipyretics

29. A four-month-old child named Amina was brought to the health post because she had had diarrhoea for five days. She did not have danger signs and she was not coughing. However, Amina was restless and irritable every time the health worker touched her and would not settle even when her mother tried to soothe her. The only time she was calm was when her mother was breastfeeding her. Amina was able to feed strongly. The health worker assessed the child’s diarrhoea. She recorded the following signs: Restlessness Eagerly to drink Amina had two signs from the yellow row. Therefore, the health worker classified Amina's dehydration as:

a) Severe Dehydration

b) Some Dehydration

c) No Dehydration

d) Very Severe Dehydration

30. How far now? Are you some how ready for Paed?

At least somewhere

Hahaha, you want to laugh!