Quizzes & Surveys - Page 2 of 14

IMNCI Treat the Child Quiz

Welcome to your IMNCI Treat the Child Quiz

15 MCQ's and 5 fil ins

September 9, 2025

1. When teaching a mother to administer oral antibiotics to a child with pneumonia, which of the following steps should be emphasized?

A. Provide the first dose in the clinic and explain that the child can stop the medication if feeling better.

B. Only demonstrate how to measure the dose without asking the mother to practice.

C. Watch the mother practice measuring and administering a dose, and ensure the full course is completed.

D. Give instructions verbally without labeling or packaging the drug.

None

2. For a child aged 1 year diagnosed with pneumonia, what is the appropriate first-line antibiotic and dose?

A. Ciprofloxacin, 1 tablet (250 mg) twice daily for 5 days

B. Amoxicillin, 2 tablets (250 mg) twice daily for 5 days

C. Erythromycin, 1 tablet (250 mg) four times daily for 5 days

D. Artemether-Lumefantrine, 40 mg Artemether and 240 mg Lumefantrine twice daily

None

3. Artemether + Lumefantrine is prescribed for uncomplicated malaria. How many doses should be completed over 3 days?

A. 3 doses

B. 4 doses

C. 5 doses

D. 6 doses

None

4. If a child vomits within 30 minutes of taking Artemether-Lumefantrine, what should be done?

A. Resume normal dosing schedule.

B. Re-administer the dose immediately.

C. Skip this dose and give the next as scheduled.

D. Re-administer after 2 hours.

None

5. Which action is essential for stopping convulsions in a child?

A. Applying a cold compress

B. Giving diazepam rectally

C. Offering sugary water orally

D. Giving oral antibiotics

None

6. Vitamin A supplementation is critical in children with certain conditions. For which of the following cases is it recommended?

A. Children diagnosed with persistent diarrhea

B. Children who recently received a dose within the month

C. Only children under 6 months

D. Only children over 5 years

None

7. Which of the following is NOT a correct zinc dosage guideline for treating diarrhea?

A. 1 tablet daily for children over 6 months for 14 days

B. ½ tablet daily for infants under 6 months for 14 days

C. 2 tablets daily for children over 6 months for 7 days

D. Dissolving tablets in ORS or breast milk for young infants

None

8. How should a mother treat a local eye infection in her child at home?

A. Apply quinolone drops only

B. Use tetracycline eye ointment four times daily

C. Clean the eye once daily

D. Use an alcohol-based wipe on the eyelids

None

9. Which method of giving fluids is recommended for children with mild dehydration?

A. IV fluids in a hospital

B. ORS at home, as much as the child will drink

C. Nasogastric tube administration of fluids

D. Low-sodium oral antibiotics

None

10. Which step is critical before initiating ART in a child with confirmed HIV infection?

A. Check the child’s weight and height

B. Ensure the caregiver is willing and able to give ART

C. Administer co-trimoxazole prophylaxis

D. Send for lab tests like viral load and CD4 count

None

11. For children under 18 months, how is HIV infection confirmed?

A. Two different serological tests are positive

B. A single positive serological test

C. A positive PCR test

D. Clinical symptoms only

None

12. If a caregiver is not ready to give ART, the health worker should:

A. Refer the child immediately to a higher facility

B. Initiate ART immediately and hope the caregiver adjusts

C. Counsel the caregiver and support regular follow-up until ready

D. Administer ART at the facility only

None

13. What is the recommended treatment for thrush in HIV-positive children?

A. Administer co-trimoxazole

B. Stop ART until resolved

C. Treat with Nystatin for 7 days

D. Only monitor symptoms

None

14. How should jaundice or severe abdominal pain in a child on ART be managed?

A. Continue ART and monitor symptoms

B. Switch ART immediately

C. Stop drugs and refer urgently

D. Give paracetamol and observe

None

15. Which of the following is the correct initial step for treating a child classified with severe pneumonia or very severe disease?

A. Prescribe oral antibiotics and send the child home.

B. Provide the first dose of Ampicillin or Gentamicin and refer urgently.

C. Administer paracetamol for fever and ask the mother to observe at home.

D. Give oral rehydration salts (ORS) and observe for 24 hours.

None

16. For severe malnutrition, the initial phase of treatment should focus on ____.

17. For a child with anemia, the recommended supplementation includes ____ and folic acid.

18. A child presenting with bloody diarrhea should be treated with ____, an antibiotic effective against Shigella.

19. In a child with a severe acute malnutrition diagnosis, the initial diet should be a F-____ formula.

20. For persistent diarrhea, in addition to rehydration, supplement with ____.

21. Are somehow ready for Paed exam?

Kinda, am ready.

I need more time surely

None

Name

Time's up

IMNCI Treat the Child Quiz Read More »

IMNCI Day Introduction Quiz

Welcome to your IMNCI Day Introduction Quiz

15 MCQ's and 5 fil ins

September 9, 2025

1. What is the first step in the IMCI case management process for a child with a suspected illness?

A. Treat

B. Classify

C. Assess

D. Follow-up

None

2. What should a healthcare worker do if a child shows signs of lethargy and is unconscious?

A. Classify as having some dehydration

B. Classify as a case of severe dehydration

C. Classify as having a very severe disease

D. Classify as pneumonia

None

3. In a child with a cough or difficulty breathing, which of the following is a danger sign indicating very severe disease?

A. Fast breathing

B. Stridor in a calm child

C. Sore throat

D. Wheezing

None

4. Which of the following is NOT considered a general danger sign in a sick child?

A. Lethargy

B. Vomiting everything

C. Fast breathing

D. Convulsions

None

5. Which of the following symptoms is classified under “some dehydration” in IMCI guidelines?

A. Lethargy

B. Sunken eyes

C. Very slow skin pinch

D. Absent pulse

None

6. Which of the following treatments should be given to a child with “very severe disease” according to IMCI guidelines?

A. Give zinc supplements

B. Soothe the throat with a home remedy

C. Provide oral rehydration salts (ORS)

D. Administer pre-referral treatment and refer urgently

None

7. If a child has persistent diarrhea for over 14 days, but no dehydration, how should the case be classified?

A. Severe persistent diarrhea

B. Some dehydration

C. Persistent diarrhea

D. Hypovolemic shock

None

8. What is the appropriate classification for a child with chest indrawing and fast breathing?

A. Pneumonia

B. Severe pneumonia

C. No pneumonia

D. Wheezing

None

9. What should be the next step for a child with a general danger sign?

A. Treat at home

B. Admit for observation

C. Refer urgently to a hospital

D. Provide symptomatic treatment

None

10. Which of the following is NOT part of the immediate pre-referral treatment for a child with very severe disease?

A. Give oral cotrimoxazole

B. Give treatment to prevent low blood sugar

C. Keep the child warm

D. Administer diazepam if convulsing

None

11. Which of the following signs would classify a child with fever as having "Very Severe Febrile Disease or Severe Malaria"?

A. Fever lasting more than 7 days

B. Stiff neck and general danger signs

C. Positive malaria test and high fever

D. Runny nose and red eyes

None

12. In assessing for acute malnutrition in a child, which of the following would classify the child as having "Severe Acute Malnutrition with Complications"?

A. MUAC 120mm and able to finish RUTF

B. Oedema of both feet and unable to finish RUTF

C. WFH less than -2 z score and no medical complications

D. Child with MUAC less than 115mm and breastfeeding problem

None

13. What is the correct classification for a child with fever, a positive malaria test, and no signs of general danger?

A) Uncomplicated malaria

B) Very severe febrile disease

C) Severe malaria

D) Fever: No malaria

None

14. Which of the following signs indicates a classification of severe complications of measles?

A) Generalized rash

B) Deep or extensive mouth ulcers

C) Runny nose

D) Cough

None

15. A child has pus draining from the ear for more than 14 days. What is the classification?

A) Acute ear infection

B) No ear infection

C) Chronic ear infection

D) Mastoiditis

None

16. If a child has sunken eyes, decreased urine output, and drinks eagerly when offered fluids, the child should be classified as having __________.

17. For a child presenting with a fast breathing rate of 55 breaths per minute at 6 months of age, the classification would be __________.

18. A child with a generalized rash, runny nose, and red eyes should be classified as having __________.

19. If a child with fever tests positive for malaria and has no danger signs, they are classified as having ________.

20. How do you so far fell about IMNCI

Positive

Scared

None

Name

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IMNCI Day Introduction Quiz Read More »

Pharmacology Day 1 and 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Week One Exam

Attempt all Questions

Do Not ReDO the paper unless you are told to do so.

Time allowed: 1:30 mins.

1. What is the primary focus of Teaching Methodology?

a) The study of nurses' daily routines

b) The study of different methods used in the teaching-learning process

c) The study of patient care techniques

d) The study of medical equipment

None

2. Which process involves acquiring new knowledge, skills, and attitudes, resulting in a change in behavior?

a) Teaching

b) Training

c) Learning

d) Education

None

3. Which term refers to the phases of teaching and learning, including assessing learning needs, establishing learning objectives, and evaluating outcomes?

a) Teaching Process

b) Learning Process

c) Instruction Process

d) Assessment Process

None

4. Which of the following is NOT considered a teaching strategy?

a) Lectures

b) Discussions

c) Group work

d) Prescription of medications

None

5. Which type of learning occurs away from a structured, formal environment and includes self-directed learning or experiences like observing and field trips?

a) Formal learning

b) Informal learning

c) Non-formal learning

d) Extracurricular learning

None

6. What is does the motivation phase in the phases of learning mean?

a) Acquisition of new information

b) Transfer of information to new situations

c) Expectation that learning will be rewarding

d) Recall of previously learned information

None

7. Which motivation theory emphasizes the importance of not teaching too hard or too easy in motivating individuals?

a) Arousal Theory

b) Expectancy Theory

c) Self-Determination Theory

d) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

None

8. What is the phase of learning that involves the transfer of newly acquired information from short-term to long-term memory?

a) Motivation phase

b) Acquisition phase

c) Retention phase

d) Recall phase

None

9. What is the primary reason why some learners may lack motivation to learn?

a) Lack of recognition and feedback

b) Fear of success

c) Fear of making mistakes

d) Lack of discipline

None

10. What is the primary role of the principle of motivation in teaching?

a) To provide well-defined objectives

b) To make students comfortable in the presence of a teacher

c) To inspire students and develop a positive attitude towards the subject

d) To keep students as passive learners

None

11. Which principle suggests that teaching should respect the individuality of students and consider each student as unique?

a) Principle of activity

b) Principle of selection

c) Principle of individual difference

d) Principle of division

None

12. Which maxim of teaching suggests that new lessons should be related to what is already known to the students?

a) Proceed from simple to complex

b) Proceed from concrete to abstract

c) Proceed from known to unknown

d) Proceed from particular to general

None

13. Which philosophy of education emphasizes that knowledge acquired through the senses is true?

a) Idealism

b) Realism

c) Naturalism

d) Pragmatism

None

14. What is the key concept of pragmatism in education?

a) Learning by doing

b) Focusing on abstract concepts

c) Classical philosophy

d) Idealistic principles

None

15. In idealism, what is considered the controller and explainer of phenomena?

a) The physical world

b) Concrete objects

c) The mind or spirit

d) Sensory perception

None

16. According to realism, what is considered true knowledge?

a) Knowledge acquired through the senses

b) Knowledge acquired through intuition

c) Knowledge acquired through imagination

d) Knowledge acquired through authority

None

17. Which major type of conditioning involves the association between a behavior and a consequence of reward or punishment?

a) Classical conditioning

b) Operant conditioning

c) Social conditioning

d) Environmental conditioning

None

18. What did B.F. Skinner primarily focus on in behaviorism?

a) Internal thoughts and motivations

b) Observing internal mental states

c) External, observable causes of behavior

d) Emotional experiences

None

19. What is the process of fitting new information into existing knowledge structures called in constructivism?

a) Accommodation

b) Reconstruction

c) Assimilation

d) Adaptation

None

20. In constructivism, what process involves changing existing knowledge structures to accommodate new information?

a) Assimilation

b) Adaptation

c) Reframing

d) Accommodation

None

21. What is one of the key characteristics of adult learners?

a) Dependence on the instructor

b) Lack of life experiences

c) Self-direction in learning

d) Readiness to learn

None

22. Which principle of andragogy emphasizes that adults prefer learning that is immediately applicable to their situation?

a) Self-directed learning

b) Building on experience

c) Readiness to learn

d) Pragmatic learning

None

23. What does the SMART acronym stand for in the context of educational objectives?

a) Student Mastery and Assessment for Realistic Targets

b) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound

c) Subject Matter and Real-world Training

d) Sequential Measures and Assessment Tools

None

24. What is the primary purpose of educational objectives?

a) To evaluate teacher performance

b) To communicate to colleagues

c) To inform students about teaching methods

d) To describe desired changes in student behavior

None

25. Which domain of learning deals with emotional and social aspects, including attitudes, values, interests, and motivation?

a) Cognitive Domain

b) Affective Domain

c) Psychomotor Domain

d) Analytical Domain

None

26. What does Bloom's Taxonomy classify educational objectives into?

a) Four major domains

b) Two major domains

c) Three major domains

d) Five major domains

None

27. Which type of educational objectives are specific, precise, and measurable and correspond to each specific teaching-learning activity?

a) Institutional Objectives

b) Departmental Objectives

c) General Objectives

d) Instructional Objectives

None

28. Which of the following represents an objective in the Affective Domain?

a) Solving complex mathematical equations

b) Expressing empathy towards patients in a healthcare setting

c) Learning to play a musical instrument

d) Demonstrating physical fitness through exercise

None

29. An educational objective has the following parts EXCEPT:

a) Behaviour

b) Condition

c) Criteria

d) Action

None

30. Great job for reaching this far, how about a free mark?

Yes, that would be nice.

Nope, i toil for my own marks.

None

31. What does the term "-Ology" in Teaching Methodology mean?

32. According to the principles of teaching and learning, teaching should aim at having students ________ and not passive.

33. In constructivism, the process of changing existing knowledge structures to accommodate new information is called ___________.

34. The SMART criteria help in creating well-defined and effective educational objectives: Specific, Measurable, Achievable, __________, and Time-bound.

34. Which type of punishment under constructivism do parents punish there children to get rid of bad behaviour?

35. The last Phase in the phases of learning is?

36. The domain that uses muscular skeletal structures in acquiring skills is ?

37. The domain that deals with intellectual skills is?

38. The teaching method that engages a student in real life setting is?

39. In Bloom's Taxonomy, the domain that focuses on attitudes, values, and interests is?

40. Maxims of teaching are also known as codes of __________?

Name

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Pharmacology Day 1 and 2 Quiz Read More »

Normal Midwifery Day 1 Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 4 Quiz

10 MCQ's

Which of the following is a quality of a good objective?

A. Vague and unclear

B. Ambiguous and confusing

C. Specific and measurable

D. Lengthy and complicated

None

Which domain of educational objectives deals with physical skills and movements?

A. Cognitive domain

B. Affective domain

C. Psychomotor domain

D. Emotional domain

None

What is the primary focus of the cognitive domain of educational objectives?

A. Emotions and values

B. Physical skills

C. Intellectual abilities and knowledge

D. Social interactions

None

What does the affective domain of educational objectives include?

A. Physical skills

B. Attitudes and values

C. Intellectual abilities

D. Social interactions

None

What do teaching methods refer to?

A. The teacher's competence

B. The students' competence

C. The orderly procedures used by the teacher

D. The educational objectives

None

What do you understand by learning activities in teaching methods?

A. Teacher evaluations

B. Things students do during the lesson

C. Written exams

D. Teacher lectures

None

Which teaching method is best suited for larger groups of students?

A. Discussion

B. Role-playing

C. Lecture

D. Demonstration

None

Which of the following best describes teaching strategies?

A. Methods for classroom management

B. Techniques to entertain students

C. Approaches to help students learn course content and set achievable goals

D. Rules for student discipline

None

What do instructional objectives focus on?

A) Broad institutional goals

B) Specific teaching methods

C) Desired student learning outcomes

D) Departmental objectives

None

Which type of objective is usually broad in focus and aligns with the institution's goals?

A) Instructional objective

B) Departmental objective

C) Institutional objective

D) Behavioral objective

None

Name

Time's up

Normal Midwifery Day 1 Quiz Read More »

Paediatric Day 6 Quiz

Welcome to your Paediatric Day 6 Quiz

15 MCQ's and 5 fil ins

September 9, 2025

1. What is a hydrocele?

a) Accumulation of blood within the testicular sac

b) Accumulation of air within the testicular sac

c) Accumulation of serous fluid within the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum

d) Accumulation of urine within the scrotal region

None

2. Which muscle contracts to give the scrotum its wrinkled appearance?

a) Cremaster muscle

b) Dartos muscle

c) Sphincter muscle

d) Tensor fasciae latae

None

3. What is the main function of the scrotum?

a) To produce sperm

b) To store urine

c) To protect the testes and keep them at a temperature below the normal body temperature

d) To regulate blood flow to the testes

None

4. Which type of hydrocele is often found in newborns and may resolve over time?

a) Primary hydrocele

b) Secondary hydrocele

c) Communicating hydrocele

d) Non-communicating hydrocele

None

5. Which type of hydrocele is characterized by the sac not closing, allowing fluid to flow back into the abdomen?

a) Primary hydrocele

b) Secondary hydrocele

c) Communicating hydrocele

d) Non-communicating hydrocele

None

6. What is the most common cause of secondary hydroceles?

a) Testicular cancer

b) Testicular trauma

c) Acute or chronic epididymo-orchitis

d) Testicular torsion

None

7. Which type of hydrocele occurs when the processus vaginalis remains patent only around the testes?

a) Congenital hydrocele

b) Infantile hydrocele

c) Encysted hydrocele of the cord

d) Vaginal hydrocele

None

8. What is the recommended method of diagnosing a primary hydrocele?

a) Ultrasound imaging

b) Blood tests

c) Transillumination

d) MRI scan

None

9. Which approach is mostly preferred for pediatric hydroceles during surgical management?

a) Scrotal approach

b) Inguinal approach

c) Sclerotherapy

d) Hydrocelectomy

None

10. What is the recommended management for hydroceles appearing in the first year of life?

a) Observation only

b) Aspiration and sclerotherapy

c) Surgical removal

d) Antibiotic therapy

None

11. Which of the following is the definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii?

A) Dogs

B) Cows

C) Cats

D) Humans

None

12. Which of the following is NOT a common mode of transmission for Toxoplasma gondii to humans?

A) Consumption of undercooked meat

B) Blood transfusion

C) Ingestion of oocysts from cat feces

D) Vertical transmission from mother to fetus

None

13. Which of the following clinical features is part of the classical triad of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A) Hydrocephalus

B) Hepatosplenomegaly

C) Jaundice

D) Pneumonia

None

14. Which of the following is the preferred treatment for congenital toxoplasmosis?

A) Clindamycin and Leucovorin

B) Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine

C) Metronidazole and Doxycycline

D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

None

15. What form of Toxoplasma gondii crosses the placenta and infects the fetus?

A) Oocysts

B) Bradyzoites

C) Tachyzoites

D) Sporocysts

None

16. A hydrocele is characterized by the accumulation of _______________ fluid within the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum or along the spermatic cord.

17. ______________ hydrocele occurs when the processus vaginalis remains patent only around the testes.

18. The clinical severity of HIE in newborns is often graded using the __________ classification system.

19. Therapeutic __________ is the standard treatment for HIE and aims to reduce brain damage by lowering the body's temperature.

20. Free mark?

Yes

Nah, thanks.

None

Name

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Paediatric Day 6 Quiz Read More »

Paediatrics Day 5 Quiz

Welcome to your Paediatrics Day 5 Quiz

September 9, 2025

20 Multiple Choice Questions and 5 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is the primary cause of sickle cell disease (SCD)?

A) Lack of hemoglobin production

B) A mutation in the beta-globin gene

C) A deficiency in iron

D) An overproduction of white blood cells

None

2. What is the typical life span of sickle-shaped red blood cells in a patient with SCD?

A) 90–120 days

B) 40–60 days

C) 20–30 days

D) 10–20 days

None

3. Which of the following complications is associated with blocked blood vessels in the extremities due to sickling of red blood cells?

A) Jaundice

B) Priapism

C) Hand and foot syndrome

D) Splenic sequestration crisis

None

4. Which of the following is the gold standard for diagnosing sickle cell disease?

A) Sickle Cell Prep

B) Full Blood Count (FBC)

C) Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

D) Sickledex Test

None

5. Which of the following factors is most likely to precipitate a sickle cell crisis?

A) Dehydration

B) Overeating

C) High blood sugar

D) Overhydration

None

6. Which type of sickle cell crisis is characterized by a sudden cessation of red blood cell production in the bone marrow?

A) Vaso-occlusive crisis

B) Splenic sequestration crisis

C) Aplastic crisis

D) Hemolytic crisis

None

7. Which clinical presentation is most likely associated with sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis?

A) Priapism

B) Splenomegaly

C) Hemolysis

D) Osteomyelitis

None

8. Which of the following drugs is used to increase fetal hemoglobin (HbF) production in sickle cell disease patients?

A) Hydroxyurea

B) Aspirin

C) Prednisone

D) Penicillin

None

9. Which of the following is a potential side effect of hydroxyurea therapy in sickle cell disease?

A) Increased risk of infection

B) Increased bone marrow production

C) Weight gain

D) Increased red blood cell count

None

10. Which of the following is the best preventive measure for children with sickle cell disease to avoid infections?

A) Daily penicillin prophylaxis

B) Annual influenza vaccination

C) Monthly blood transfusions

D) Frequent hydration

None

11. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pericarditis?

A. Bacterial infections

B. Fungal infections

C. Viral infections

D. Autoimmune diseases

None

12. A friction rub in pericarditis is best heard in which position?

A. Supine position

B. Prone position

C. Sitting up and leaning forward

D. Left lateral decubitus position

None

13. Which of the following is a life-threatening complication of pericarditis?

A. Pericardial effusion

B. Cardiac tamponade

C. Recurrent pericarditis

D. Heart failure

None

14. Which drug is primarily used to reduce the recurrence of pericarditis?

A. NSAIDs

B. Colchicine

C. Antibiotics

D. Corticosteroids

None

15. A patient presents with hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute pericarditis

B. Myocardial infarction

C. Cardiac tamponade

D. Heart failure

None

16. Which diagnostic test is most useful in confirming the presence of pericardial effusion?

A. ECG

B. Chest X-ray

C. Echocardiogram

D. Cardiac catheterization

None

17. In a patient with uremic pericarditis, which intervention is most appropriate?

A. NSAIDs

B. Hemodialysis

C. Corticosteroids

D. Pericardiocentesis

None

18. Which of the following is the most commonly affected valve in Rheumatic Heart Disease?

A. Mitral valve

B. Tricuspid valve

C. Pulmonary valve

D. Aortic valve

None

19. Which organism is primarily responsible for Rheumatic Heart Disease?

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

D. Escherichia coli

None

20. Which of the following is a major criterion in the Modified Jones criteria for diagnosing Rheumatic Fever?

A. Arthralgia

B. Fever

C. Erythema marginatum

D. Prolonged PR interval

None

Fill In Questions

None

21. The most commonly affected valve in Rheumatic Heart Disease is the __________ valve.

22. A characteristic feature of pericarditis that can be heard on auscultation is a __________ rub.

23. In sickle cell disease, a sudden onset of anemia due to rapid destruction of red blood cells, often triggered by infection, is known as a __________ crisis.

24. In sickle cell disease, the amino acid glutamic acid is replaced by __________ in the hemoglobin beta chain.

25. Pericarditis can progress to __________, a life-threatening condition where fluid builds up in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart.

Name

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Paediatrics Day 5 Quiz Read More »

Tropical Medicine UNMEB Past Paper Exam

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 2 Quiz

Good Luck

1. What is the focus of the principle of individual difference?

a) Treating all students the same way

b) Respecting each student's uniqueness

c) Grouping students by age

d) Implementing standardized testing

None

2. According to the principle of selection, what should teachers base their choice of content, teaching methods, and aids on?

a) Personal preferences

b) The teacher's expertise

c) The level and needs of learners

d) Availability of resources

None

3. Which philosophy of education emphasizes that ideas are the only true reality worth knowing?

a) Idealism

b) Realism

c) Naturalism

d) Pragmatism

None

4. What is the focus of pragmatism in education?

a) Emphasizing theoretical knowledge

b) Encouraging passive learning

c) Practical consequences and observable change

d) Theoretical and philosophical debates

None

5. Who is known for the theory of classical conditioning in behaviorism?

a) Ivan Pavlov

b) B.F. Skinner

c) Edward Thorndike

d) John B. Watson

None

6. In behaviorism, what is the term for the process of strengthening a behavior through rewards or punishments?

a) Assimilation

b) Accommodation

c) Conditioning

d) Reinforcement

None

7. What is the main focus of operant conditioning in behaviorism?

a) Associations between stimuli

b) Logical reasoning

c) Rewards and punishments for behavior

d) Observational learning

None

8. Which type of reinforcement involves the presentation of something favorable after a behavior?

a) Positive reinforcement

b) Negative reinforcement

c) Positive punishment

d) Negative punishment

None

9. In constructivism, what does assimilation refer to?

a) Changing existing knowledge structures

b) Incorporating new information into existing knowledge

c) Learning through observation

d) Behavioral conditioning

None

10. Which of the following is NOT a principle of teaching and learning?

A. Principle of motivation

B. Principle of activity

C. Principle of individual difference

D. Principle of standardization

None

11. The principles of teaching and learning are designed to help teachers achieve the purpose of teaching.

True

False

None

12. The principle of motivation states that the best teacher is one who inspires and praises students.

True

False

None

13. The principle of activity states that teaching should focus on having students be passive.

True

False

None

14. The principle of individual difference states that teaching should be the same for all students.

True

False

None

15. The principle of selection states that teachers should select appropriate content, teaching methods, and aids based on the level and needs of learners

True

False

None

16. What maxim emphasizes organizing lesson content by starting with simpler ideas before moving to complex ones?

17. Which philosophy of education asserts that ideas and the mind are the ultimate reality?

18. Who is known for discovering classical conditioning?

19. According to constructivism, what is the process of fitting new information into existing knowledge structures called?

Do you need a free mark?

Yes

Name

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Tropical Medicine UNMEB Past Paper Exam Read More »

Medicine UNMEB Past Paper Exam

Welcome to your Medicine UNMEB Past Paper Exam

September 9, 2025

35 Multiple Choice Questions and 5 Fill ins

ALL first questions are from the UNMEB paper attached below, PLEASE DOWNLOAD IT

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis?

(a) Toxoplasmosis

(b) Staphylococcus

(d) Proteins

None

2. When planning a diet for a patient with renal failure, the nurse should remember to include:

(a) High protein, high carbohydrates, low calories

(b) Adequate calories, high carbohydrates, limited protein

(d) Limited protein, low carbohydrates, adequate calories

None

3. A nurse suspects a client who complains of excessive thirst and passing a large volume of very dilute urine to be suffering from:

(a) Urinary tract infection

(b) Diabetes insipidus

(d) Hypoglycemia

None

4. The primary goal of care when treating a patient with diabetes mellitus is to:

(a) Produce secretion of insulin

(b) Increase the secretion of insulin

(d) Control blood glucose levels

None

5. Which of the following findings does a nurse expect to observe in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

(a) Early morning joint pain

(b) Increased range of motion in the hands

(d) Absence of joint swelling

None

6. Which of the following is NOT associated with osteoporosis?

(a) Sedentary lifestyle

(b) Back pain relieved by rest

(d) Urinary stones

None

7. Which of the following is NOT true about stroke?

(a) Sudden numbness

(b) Sudden vision loss

(d) Sudden epigastric pain

None

8. A nurse records a blood clot, fat globule, or gas bubble created in part of the body that circulates in the bloodstream as:

(a) Thrombus

(b) Embolus

(d) Necrosis

None

9. Dwarfism is an inherited deficiency of growth hormone with the absence of:

(a) Aldosterone

(b) Cortisol

(d) Somatotropin

None

10. Which of the following nursing actions is specific to a patient with meningococcal meningitis?

(a) Place the patient in an isolation room

(b) Check to see if the patient is HIV positive

(d) Observe the patient for skin lesions

None

11. Unusual vaginal discharge, pelvic and abdominal pain, pain during intercourse, and frequency of micturition may be found in patients suspected of:

(a) Renal failure

(b) Glomerulonephritis

(d) Pyelonephritis

None

12. Which of the following findings is associated with glomerulonephritis?

(a) Hematuria

(b) Low blood urea nitrogen

(d) Hypotension

None

13. Nurses advise patients undergoing dialysis to have a special diet and medications because:

(a) They have accumulated a lot of waste products

(b) Their bodies cannot sustain the process of dialysis

(d) Their appetite is poor and protein is lost during dialysis

None

14. Which of the following types of headache presents with one-sided, throbbing intense pain?

(a) Brain tumor headache

(b) Migraine headache

(d) Cluster headache

None

15. A nervous disorder characterized by tremors at rest, sluggish movements, and muscle rigidity is known as:

(a) Tourette's syndrome

(b) Huntington's disease

(d) Parkinson's disease

None

16. A disorder where the nerves of the eyes, brain, and spinal cord lose patches of myelin is known as:

(a) Polyneuropathy

(b) Peripheral neuropathy

(d) Transverse myelitis

None

17. The degenerative disease of the neck discs and vertebrae is referred to as cervical:

(a) Spondylosis

(b) Atrophy

(d) Neuropathy

None

18. Total blockage of nerve impulse transmission up and down the spinal cord is referred to as:

(a) Acute transverse myelitis

(b) Nerve root disorder

(d) Spinal hematoma

None

19. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a high level of uric acid in the blood?

(a) Osteoarthritis

(b) Rheumatoid arthritis

(d) Septic arthritis

None

20. What does a nurse expect to find in a patient with primary hyperparathyroidism?

(a) Low calcium levels

(b) Hypercalcemia

(d) Low vitamin D levels

None

21. What is the primary role of the thymus in the lymphatic system?

A) Filtering blood to remove old red blood cells

B) Producing antibodies

C) Maturation of T lymphocytes

D) Producing plasma cells

None

22. The inability to pinch the skin at the base of the second toe or finger due to skin thickening is known as:

A) Stemmer sign

B) Brawny edema

C) Papillomatosis

D) Hyperkeratosis

None

23. Which of the following mechanisms does NOT contribute to lymph flow?

A) Skeletal muscle contraction

B) Arterial pulsations

C) Heart pumping

D) Tissue compression

None

24. Which of the following is NOT a stage of lymphedema?

A) Stage

0 B) Stage 1

C) Stage 3

D) Stage 4

None

25. The spleen is responsible for all of the following functions EXCEPT:

A) Hematopoiesis in the fetus

B) Filtration of blood

C) Destruction of old red blood cells

D) Production of T cells

None

26. Which of the following is the most common cause of lymphangitis?

A) Fungal infection

B) Parasitic infection

C) Viral infection

D) Bacterial infection

None

27. Which clinical feature is considered the hallmark of lymphangitis?

A) Lymphadenopathy

B) Fever

C) Red streaks

D) Malaise

None

28. Which of the following organisms is commonly associated with cat-scratch disease, leading to lymphangitis?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

B) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Bartonella henselae

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

None

29. Which of the following is a key nursing intervention for a patient with lymphangitis?

A) Encouraging ambulation

B) Monitoring for signs of sepsis

C) Applying heat to the affected area

D) Restricting fluid intake

None

30. Which of the following cells is characteristically found in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A) Reed-Sternberg cells

B) T lymphocytes

C) Plasma cells

D) Macrophages

None

31. Hodgkin’s lymphoma is most strongly associated with which virus?

A) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

B) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

C) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

D) Hepatitis B Virus

None

32. Which stage of Hodgkin’s lymphoma involves lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm?

A) Stage I

B) Stage II

C) Stage III

D) Stage IV

None

33. Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) infection

B) Family history of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

C) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection

D) Smoking

None

34. Which of the following is the least common site of extranodal involvement in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A) Bone marrow

B) Liver

C) Lung

D) Brain

None

35. We appreciate you for choosing nurses revision to be part of your academic journey! Free mark for that

Ya, why not

Na, don't bribe

None

Fill-in Questions

None

36. The type of arthritis that causes joint pain especially in the great toe is __________?.

37. A metabolic disorder in which there is low bone mass and deterioration of bone structure is ______________?.

38. A tumour of the adrenal medulla that increases blood pressure is Pheochromocytoma.

Hint

39. A patient becomes comatose during retention of ketones and glucose as a result of _______________?.

40. A paroxysmal discharge of cerebral neurons accompanied by an apparent clinical phenomenon is called a ______________?

Name

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Medicine Day 7 & 8 Musculoskeletal Exam

Welcome to your Medicine Day 7 & 8 Musculoskeletal Exam

September 9, 2025

30 Multiple Choice Questions and 10 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is the most common cause of tendonitis?

A) Bacterial infection

B) Overuse and repetitive strain

C) Autoimmune response

D) Vitamin deficiency

None

2. A key feature distinguishing rheumatoid arthritis from osteoarthritis is:

A) Asymmetrical joint involvement

B) Morning stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes

C) Symmetrical joint involvement

D) Pain worsened by activity

None

3. Which of the following treatments is primarily aimed at slowing the progression of rheumatoid arthritis?

A) NSAIDs

B) Corticosteroids

C) DMARDs

D) Physical therapy

None

4. In rheumatoid arthritis, the formation of abnormal tissue growth within the joint is known as:

A) Synovitis

B) Pannus

C) Osteophytes

D) Bone spur

None

5. A 50-year-old athlete presents with pain in the Achilles tendon after increasing his running distance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis

B) Gout

C) Tendonitis

D) Osteoarthritis

None

6. What is the primary pathophysiological change in osteoarthritis (OA)?

A) Inflammation of the synovial membrane

B) Breakdown of joint cartilage and underlying bone changes

C) Deposition of uric acid crystals in the joint

D) Autoimmune destruction of joint tissues

None

7. Which joint is most commonly affected in gout?

A) Knee

B) Hip

C) Big toe

D) Shoulder

None

8. Which of the following is a significant risk factor for both osteoarthritis and gout?

A) Autoimmune diseases

B) Obesity

C) Viral infections

D) Hypothyroidism

None

9. Which dietary recommendation is important for patients with gout?

A) Increase purine-rich foods

B) Decrease fluid intake

C) Avoid red meat and organ meats

D) Increase alcohol consumption

None

10. Which feature is more characteristic of osteoarthritis than gout?

A) Sudden, severe pain

B) Bone spurs

C) Red, swollen joints

D) Nighttime attacks

None

11. Which medication is commonly used in acute gout attacks to relieve inflammation?

A) Methotrexate

B) Colchicine

C) Glucosamine

D) Biologics

None

12. What is a common sign of chronic gout that differentiates it from early-stage gout?

A) Podagra

B) Sudden onset of joint pain

C) Tophi

D) Redness and warmth of joints

None

13. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with osteoarthritis?

A) Pain worsening with use

B) Morning stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes

C) Symmetrical joint involvement

D) Formation of bone spurs

None

14. What lab finding is most closely associated with gout?

A) Elevated C-reactive protein

B) Positive rheumatoid factor

C) High serum uric acid

D) Anti-CCP antibodies

None

15. Which intervention is specifically aimed at lowering serum uric acid levels in gout?

A) NSAIDs

B) Colchicine

C) Allopurinol

D) Corticosteroids

None

16. Which of the following is the most common cause of septic arthritis?

A) Virus

B) Fungus

C) Bacteria

D) Autoimmune reaction

None

17. The hallmark of ankylosing spondylitis on X-ray is:

A) Butterfly rash

B) Bamboo spine

C) Joint erosion

D) Bone spurs

None

18. Which of the following is a major risk factor for developing ankylosing spondylitis?

A) Female gender

B) HLA-B27 genetic marker

C) High-fat diet

D) Sedentary lifestyle

None

19. Which of the following joints is most commonly affected by septic arthritis?

A) Elbow

B) Hip

C) Knee

D) Shoulder

None

20. Which of the following treatments is commonly used in systemic lupus erythematosus to prevent flares?

A) Methotrexate

B) Hydroxychloroquine

C) Colchicine

D) Celecoxib

None

21. Which of the following symptoms is specific to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) rather than other autoimmune diseases?

A) Butterfly rash

B) Morning stiffness

C) Fatigue

D) Joint swelling

None

22. What imaging modality is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis?

A) X-ray

B) Quantitative Computed Tomography (QCT)

C) Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA)

D) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

None

23. Which of the following is NOT a typical management strategy for bursitis?

A) Rest and Ice

B) Corticosteroid Injections

C) Bisphosphonates

D) Compression Bandage

None

24. Which condition is characterized by excessive bone turnover leading to enlarged, weakened bones?

A) Osteoporosis

B) Paget’s Disease

C) Rheumatoid Arthritis

D) Osteoarthritis

None

25. Which of the following is a complication of untreated osteoporosis?

A) Kyphosis

B) Septic Bursitis

C) Tendonitis

D) Paget’s Disease

None

26. Which of the following conditions is primarily associated with uric acid crystal deposition?

A) Rheumatoid Arthritis

B) Gout

C) Osteoarthritis

D) Bursitis

None

27. Which type of dermatitis is most commonly associated with a personal or family history of allergies, asthma, or hay fever?

A) Atopic dermatitis

B) Contact dermatitis

C) Seborrheic dermatitis

D) Stasis dermatitis

None

28. Which bacteria is commonly involved in the pathogenesis of acne vulgaris?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Propionibacterium acnes

C) Streptococcus pyogenes

D) Escherichia coli

None

29. Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the body's own tissues, leading to rapid skin cell growth?

A) Contact dermatitis

B) Psoriasis

C) Acne vulgaris

D) Onychomycosis

None

30. Which type of dermatitis is often triggered by exposure to irritants like soaps or chemicals?

A) Atopic dermatitis

B) Nummular dermatitis

C) Contact dermatitis

D) Seborrheic dermatitis

None

Fill-in Questions

None

31. The chemical substance that can accumulate in the blood and crystallize in joints, leading to gout, is __________.

32. In gout, episodes of acute pain and inflammation in the affected joints are known as __________.

33. The strong, fibrous connective tissue that connects muscle to bone and can become inflamed due to overuse or injury is called a __________.

34. A condition characterized by excessive uric acid levels in the blood is known as __________.

35. The term used to describe a condition with urine output less than 50 ml in 24 hours is called...

36. An inflammatory arthritis that affects the spine and large joints is called.............?

37. A condition that leads to loss of bone density causing bones to become weak and brittle is............?

38. Pain that originates from the nerves is called...

39. Here are all the answers to those objectives in the image.

You will find them in the corrections

None

40. Free mark?

Nah, am good

Yes, yes

None

Name

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Medicine Day 6 Quiz

Welcome to your Medicine Day 6 Quiz

September 9, 2025

30 Multiple Choice Questions and 10 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the daily excretion of proteins in the urine called when it exceeds 150mg?

A. Azotemia

B. Crystalluria

C. Proteinuria

D. Glycosuria

None

2. Which hormone is released by the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production?

A. Renin

B. Aldosterone

C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

D. Erythropoietin

None

3. What process in the kidneys helps maintain acid-base balance by secreting hydrogen ions (H+)?

A. Filtration

B. Tubular Secretion

C. Reabsorption

D. Erythropoiesis

None

4. What is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy adult?

A. 75 mL/min

B. 90 mL/min

C. 125 mL/min

D. 150 mL/min

None

5. Which of the following describes diminished urine output of 100-400 mL per day?

A. Polyuria

B. Anuria

C. Oliguria

D. Dysuria

None

6. What is the function of renin, secreted by the kidneys?

A. Stimulates red blood cell production

B. Regulates sodium and potassium balance

C. Activates the renin-angiotensin system

D. Reabsorbs glucose

None

7. Which of the following is a common pathogen causing urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A. Escherichia coli

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

None

8. What type of glomerulonephritis involves thickening of the glomerular basement membrane?

A. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

B. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

D. Minimal change glomerulonephritis

None

9. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of nephrotic syndrome?

A) Massive proteinuria

B) Hypoalbuminemia

C) Hematuria

D) Generalized edema (anasarca)

None

10. The pathophysiology of nephrotic syndrome primarily involves damage to which structure?

A) Proximal convoluted tubule

B) Distal convoluted tubule

C) Glomeruli

D) Loop of Henle

None

11. Which of the following best describes the main difference between nephrotic and nephritic syndromes?

A) Nephrotic syndrome involves proteinuria and nephritic syndrome involves hematuria

B) Both involve massive proteinuria

C) Nephritic syndrome is characterized by hyperlipidemia

D) Both involve glomerular filtration defects but in nephrotic syndrome there is oliguria

None

12. What is a common complication of nephrotic syndrome due to hypoalbuminemia?

A) Pulmonary edema

B) Increased glomerular filtration rate

C) Hypotension

D) Hypernatremia

None

13. A patient with nephritic syndrome is likely to present with which of the following?

A) Hyperlipidemia

B) Hypoalbuminemia

C) Hematuria

D) Massive proteinuria

None

14. Which of the following interventions is least appropriate in the management of nephrotic syndrome?

A) Low sodium diet

B) Diuretics

C) High protein diet

D) Corticosteroids

None

16. Which type of dialysis is slower but can be performed at home?

A) Hemodialysis

B) Peritoneal dialysis

C) Continuous renal replacement therapy

D) None of the above

None

17. What is the most common bacterial cause of cystitis?

A) Klebsiella

B) Escherichia coli

C) Pseudomonas

D) Enterobacter

None

18. Which of the following factors is a direct cause of obstructed urine flow, increasing the risk of cystitis?

A) Increased fluid intake

B) Bladder stones

C) Immune suppression

D) Sexual activity

None

19. Which of the following medications is recommended as first-line treatment for cystitis?

A) Amoxicillin

B) Ciprofloxacin

C) Nitrofurantoin

D) Rifampicin

None

20. What is the primary factor that predisposes women to cystitis?

A) Hormonal changes

B) Catheterization

C) Short urethra

D) Sexual activity

None

21. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with acute renal failure?

A) Hypovolemia

B) Hyperkalemia

C) Polyuria

D) Fluid retention

None

22. Which phase of acute renal failure is characterized by a rapid increase in urine output?

A) Oliguric phase

B) Diuretic phase

C) Recovery phase

D) Initiation phase

None

23. In acute renal failure, which condition is primarily caused by the inability of the kidneys to excrete potassium?

A) Hypernatremia

B) Hyperkalemia

C) Hypocalcemia

D) Hyperphosphatemia

None

24. Which of the following conditions is a post-renal cause of acute renal failure?

A) Dehydration

B) Glomerulonephritis

C) Prostatic hyperplasia

D) Hemorrhage

None

25. Which of the following drugs is nephrotoxic and can cause acute renal failure?

A) Amoxicillin

B) Streptomycin

C) Insulin

D) Metformin

None

26. What is the most common type of urinary stone?

A. Uric acid stone

B. Cystine stone

C. Calcium oxalate stone

D. Struvite stone

None

27. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for preventing calcium oxalate stones?

A. Increase intake of spinach

B. Increase fluid intake

C. Increase intake of dairy products

D. Increase intake of red meat

None

28. Which of the following medications may increase the risk of kidney stones?

A. Beta-blockers

B. Diuretics

C. Statins

D. Anticoagulants

None

29. What is the first step in the management of a patient with acute renal colic?

A. Surgical removal of the stone

B. Fluid restriction

C. Pain management

D. Antibiotic therapy

None

30. Which condition is least likely to contribute to kidney stone formation?

A. Dehydration

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Hyperparathyroidism

D. High protein diet

None

Fill-in Questions

None

31. The functional unit of the kidney is called the ________.

32. The hormone responsible for regulating water balance by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys is ________.

33. The tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder is called the ________.

34. Inflammation of the urinary bladder is known as ________.

35. The inability to control urination, leading to accidental leakage, is called ________.

36. The process by which the kidneys filter excess waste, electrolytes, and water to form urine is called ________.

37. The condition characterized by excessive protein in the urine is called ________.

38. The condition in which the kidneys fail to adequately filter waste products from the blood is known as ________.

39. The triangular area in the bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits is known as the ________.

40. The primary waste product excreted by the kidneys that results from the breakdown of proteins is ________.

Name

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