Quizzes & Surveys - Page 2 of 11

Foundations Day 1 Quiz

Welcome to your Foundations Day 1 Quiz

December 25, 2024

25 Multiple Choice Questions

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is NOT a right related to medication administration?

(a) Right formulation.

(b) Right patient.

(d) Right time.

None

2. Which of the following routes provides the fastest systemic absorption?

(a) Oral.

(b) Sublingual.

(d) Transdermal.

None

3. Which of the following is an example of a parenteral route of drug administration?

(a) Oral.

(b) Sublingual.

(d) Buccal.

None

4. Which of the following abbreviations refers to four times a day?

(a) B.i.d.

(b) T.d.s.

(d) P.r.n.

None

5. Which form of medicine is intended to dissolve in the mouth?

(a) Tablets.

(b) Capsules. .

(d) Syrups

None

6. What is the correct action when a drug has changed color before administration?

(a) Administer it immediately.

(b) Mix it with another drug.

(d) Shake the drug thoroughly.

None

7. Which is an appropriate route for a patient who cannot take oral medications due to vomiting?

(a) Intravenous.

(b) Oral. .

(d) Transdermal

None

8. Which of the following is an example of a controlled-release formulation?

(a) Syrup.

(b) Tablet.

(d) Enteric-coated tablet.

None

9. Why should a humidifier be used when administering oxygen through a nasal cannula?

(a) To prevent nasal irritation.

(b) To ensure proper oxygen flow.

(d) To improve patient comfort.

None

10. What is the correct angle for inserting a needle during intradermal injection?

(a) 90 degrees.

(b) 45 degrees.

(d) 60 degrees.

None

11. Why should the needle be aspirated during an intramuscular injection?

(a) To check for medication leakage.

(b) To see if air is in the syringe.

(d) To create a negative pressure zone.

None

12. Which muscle is generally safest for intramuscular injections?

(a) Deltoid muscle.

(b) Thigh muscle.

(d) Saphenous muscle

None

13. What is the primary reason for straightening the auditory canal before instilling ear drops?

(a) To avoid injury to the tympanic membrane

(b) To ensure the medication flows through the entire ear canal

(d) To enhance patient comfort

None

14. What is the reason for requesting the patient to remain supine for 5 minutes after administering nasal drops?

(a) To prevent aspiration of the medication

(b) To allow maximum absorption of the medication

(d) To ensure proper blood circulation in the nasal area

None

15. Why should a cotton swab be placed in the auditory canal after administering ear drops?

(a) To prevent contamination of the ear

(b) To stop medication from leaking out

(d) To enhance the patient’s comfort

None

16. What is the primary indication for the transfusion of whole blood?

A. Severe burns

B. Severe anemia

C. Thrombocytopenia

D. Acute massive blood loss

None

17. Which blood product is best suited for a patient with thrombocytopenia?

A. Plasma

B. Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs)

C. Platelet Concentration

D. Whole Blood

None

18. Which of the following complications involves distended neck veins and shortness of breath during a transfusion?

A. Allergic reaction

B. Circulatory overload

C. Febrile reaction

D. Pyogenic reaction

None

19. A patient with anemia requiring an increase in oxygen-carrying capacity but no fluid overload should receive which blood product?

A. Whole Blood

B. Platelet Concentration

C. Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs)

D. Plasma

None

20. Which of the following is a cause of a febrile reaction during a blood transfusion?

A. Hypersensitivity to blood components

B. Antibodies in recipient reacting to donor white blood cells

C. Bacterial contamination of blood product

D. Mismatched blood types

None

21. Which action should be taken first if a transfusion reaction is suspected?

A. Slow the infusion rate

B. Administer antihistamines

C. Stop the transfusion immediately

D. Check the patient’s blood type

None

22. Which of the following best describes an incompatibility reaction?

A. Caused by mismatched blood types

B. Caused by bacterial contamination

C. Results in fever and chills

D. Caused by infusion of large volumes too quickly

None

23. Which of the following is NOT a component of the nurse's role before transfusion?

A. Verify the blood type and Rh factor

B. Counsel the patient on transfusion benefits

C. Administer antihistamines

D. Take vital observations

None

24. Which blood transfusion complication involves high fever and chills due to bacterial contamination?

A. Febrile reaction

B. Pyogenic reaction

C. Allergic reaction

D. Incompatibility reaction

None

25. ______________refers to the total amount of drug administered at one time.

Name

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Mental Pharma UNMEB Questions

Welcome to your Mental Pharma UNMEB Questions

December 25, 2024

25 Questions, 20 Objectives, 5 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

ALL QUESTIONS ARE FROM UNMEB PAST PAPERS

1. Which of the following is a cardinal feature of neurotic disorders?

(a) Delusions.

(b) Hallucinations.

(d) Excessive energy.

None

2. Which of the following is a first rank symptom of schizophrenia?

(a) Somatic passivity.

(b) Incongruity of affect.

(d) Catatonic symptom.

None

3. Which of the following is a minor mental disorder?

(a) Delirium.

(b) Panic attacks.

(d) Schizophrenia.

None

Hint

4. Which of the following is NOT a prominent feature with post-traumatic stress disorder?

(a) Persistent anxiety.

(b) Delusions.

(d) Flashbacks.

None

5. The commonest sleep disorder in patients suffering from endogenous depression is:

(a) Absolute insomnia.

(b) Somnambulism.

(d) Terminal insomnia.

None

Hint

6. Which of the following is the most commonly abused psychoactive substance?

(a) Alcohol.

(b) Opium.

(d) Cocaine.

None

7. Which of the following is an example of an intellectual disability in children?

(a) Dyslexia

(b) ADHD

(d) Autistic spectrum disorders.

None

8. Which of these is NOT a provision in the penal code act for admitting a criminal patient?

(a) Assessment.

(b) Admission.

(d) Discharge.

None

9. Under what section of the mental treatment Act are physically fit and mentally stable patients discharged?

(a) 18

(b) 19

(d) 21

None

10. Which of the following disorders is absent in patients with anorexia nervosa?

(a) Persistent pre-occupation with eating.

(b) Vomiting after eating.

(d) Diarrhea after eating.

None

11. Which of the following is the most common psychiatric emergency in adolescents in Uganda today?

(a) Rape and defilement.

(b) Aggression and violence.

(d) Homicide.

None

12. The commonest cause of death among psychiatric patients is

(a) aggression and violence.

(b) suicide.

(d) anorexia nervosa.

None

13. The most significant predictor of suicidal behavior is

(a) previous suicidal attempt.

(b) substance abuse.

(d) loss of a job.

None

14. The immediate care given to a patient in the post-ictal confusional state is

(a) sedusion.

(b) re-orientation.

(d) physical restraint.

None

15. Seizures that occur during status epilepticus maybe fatal mostly because they can

(a) lead to anoxia.

(b) cause suffocation.

(d) result in fractures.

None

17. Which of the following is a combined oral contraceptive pill?

(a) Norgestrel.

(b) Microgynon.

(d) Levonorgestrel.

None

18. Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?

(a) Nicotine.

(b) Codeine.

(d) Heroin.

None

Hint

19. Which of these substances accounts for more deaths due to toxic overdose?

(a) Nicotine.

(b) Caffeine.

(d) Valium.

None

20. The safest drug for the treatment of malaria in the first trimester is:

(a) Quinine.

(b) Artemether.

(d) Chloroquine.

None

Fill In Questions

None

21. The process of administering a drug to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms is termed as________?

22. A syndrome characterized by mutism, immobility, and reduced response to the environment is termed as_______?

23. Drugs that suppress the body's immune system are classified as_______?

24. Drugs that inhibit uterine frequency and strength of contractions are called____________?

25. A drug that treats bronchial asthma but can also be used to manage threatening abortions is_____________?

Name

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Mental Health Day 4 and Day 5

Welcome to your Mental Health Day 4 and Day 5

December 25, 2024

25 Questions, 20 Objectives, 5 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

A) Flat affect

B) Delusions

C) Social withdrawal

D) Poor hygiene

None

2. A person believes that they have supernatural powers and are destined to save the world. This is an example of:

A) Persecutory delusion

B) Grandiose delusion

C) Paranoid delusion

D) Erotomanic delusion

None

3. Which subtype of schizophrenia is primarily characterized by disorganized speech and behavior?

A) Paranoid schizophrenia

B) Hebephrenic schizophrenia

C) Catatonic schizophrenia

D) Residual schizophrenia

None

4. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing schizophrenia?

A) High socioeconomic status

B) Living in a rural area

C) Family history of schizophrenia

D) Lack of childhood trauma

None

5. Which of the following best describes negative symptoms in schizophrenia?

A) They represent an excess of normal functioning.

B) They are associated with better treatment outcomes.

C) They often involve a reduction in emotional and social functioning.

D) They are primarily associated with delusions and hallucinations.

None

6. A person presents with immobility, waxy flexibility, and resistance to movement. What condition does this describe?

A) Hebephrenic schizophrenia

B) Paranoid schizophrenia

C) Catatonic schizophrenia

D) Residual schizophrenia

None

7. In schizophrenia, "word salad" refers to which of the following symptoms?

A. Delusions

B. Disorganized speech

C. Hallucinations

D. Catatonia

None

8. Which of the following best describes the term "alogia"?

A. Poverty of speech

B. Lack of motivation

C. Difficulty with memory

D. False beliefs

None

9. What is the term used to describe a lack of motivation in schizophrenia?

A. Avolition

B. Anhedonia

C. Alogia

D. Apathy

None

10. Which of the following is a Schneider’s first-rank symptom of schizophrenia?

A) Paranoia

B) Thought Broadcasting

C) Emotional blunting

D) Avolition

None

11. Which of the following is NOT a common extrapyramidal side effect (EPS) of typical antipsychotics?

A) Acute dystonia

B) Akathisia

C) Parkinsonism

D) Agranulocytosis

None

12. Which of the following is a key nursing intervention for a patient with a self-care deficit related to schizophrenia?

A) Encourage the patient to complete self-care tasks independently at all times

B) Provide structured routines for self-care activities

C) Criticize the patient if they fail to maintain hygiene

D) Avoid assisting with hygiene tasks

None

13. Which of the following is a key characteristic of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?

a) Periods of mania and depression

b) Low-grade depressive symptoms for 2 years

c) Depressed mood or loss of interest in activities

d) Rapid cycling mood changes

None

14. Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) is characterized by:

a) Periods of euphoria followed by depression

b) Short, intense episodes of depression

c) Low-grade depressive symptoms for at least 2 years

d) Severe mood swings, including mania

None

15. Which type of antidepressant is considered first-line treatment for depression?

a) MAOIs

b) SSRIs

c) Tricyclic antidepressants

d) Tetracyclic antidepressants

None

16. SSRIs work by:

a) Increasing dopamine levels

b) Blocking the reuptake of serotonin

c) Reducing the activity of monoamine oxidase

d) Increasing norepinephrine reuptake

None

17. What is the primary goal in the management of depression?

a) Control of physical symptoms

b) Complete remission and functional recovery

c) Prevent relapse through lifestyle changes

d) Long-term medication use without psychotherapy

None

18. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is most appropriate for which of the following cases?

a) Mild depression

b) Treatment-resistant severe depression

c) Dysthymia

d) Panic disorders

None

19. Which of the following is characterized by loud snoring and periods of stopped breathing during sleep?

a) Insomnia

b) Narcolepsy

c) Sleep apnea

d) Restless legs syndrome

None

20. Which drug is used for short-term treatment of insomnia and is contraindicated in patients with severe hepatic impairment?

a) Zolpidem

b) Diazepam

c) Phenobarbital

d) Midazolam

None

Fill In Questions

None

21. A sensation perceived by a patient that precedes an epileptic attack is known as__________________?

22. The condition in which the patient sleeps during the day and remains awake throughout the night is referred to as_________________?

23. The type of schizophrenia characterized by disturbance of motor behavior is____________?

24. The act of getting up and walking around while asleep is referred to as__________?

25. Increased resistance to the usual normal dose of a particular drug is known as_____________?

Name

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Mental Health Day 2

Welcome to your Mental Health Day 2

December 25, 2024

20 objectives

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?

A. Gradual onset of mild anxiety

B. Sudden onset of intense fear with physical symptoms

C. Fear of a specific object or situation

D. Persistent low-grade anxiety

None

2. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of panic attacks?

A. Hypoglycemia

B. Neurotransmitter imbalances

C. Genetic predisposition

D. Focal seizures

None

3. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a panic attack as outlined in the DSM-5?

A. Fear of dying

B. Hyperactivity

C. Palpitations

D. Trembling

None

4. Which factor does NOT increase the risk of developing epilepsy?

A. Genetic predisposition

B. Brain tumors

C. Frequent alcohol consumption

D. Chronic stress

None

5. Which of the following types of seizures is characterized by brief lapses in awareness, often without physical manifestations?

A. Grand mal seizure

B. Atonic seizure

C. Absence seizure

D. Myoclonic seizure

None

6. Which of the following phases of a grand mal seizure is characterized by stiffening of the muscles?

A. Tonic phase

B. Clonic phase

C. Aura phase

D. Post-ictal phase

None

7. Which of the following is NOT part of the management strategy for panic attacks?

A. Education and reassurance

B. Oxygen therapy

C. Beta-blockers

D. Antipsychotic medication

None

8. Which type of epilepsy is characterized by a sudden loss of muscle tone, causing the body to go limp or collapse?

A) Absence seizures

B) Myoclonic seizures

C) Atonic seizures

D) Focal seizures

None

9. The aura phase in a grand mal seizure refers to:

A) The sudden loss of consciousness

B) Rhythmic jerking of the limbs

C) A brief warning sensation before the seizure

D) The period of confusion following the seizure

None

10. Which of the following is not a potential trigger for a panic attack?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Hyperthyroidism

C) High calcium levels

D) Excessive caffeine intake

None

11. Which is not a characteristic of absence seizures (petit mal)?

A) Loss of consciousness

B) Rhythmic jerking of limbs

C) Brief period of staring

D) Usually seen in children

None

12. What type of seizure involves sudden, involuntary muscle jerks or spasms?

A) Atonic seizures

B) Myoclonic seizures

C) Absence seizures

D) Tonic seizures

None

13. Which of the following best describes status epilepticus?

A) A seizure lasting less than 1 minute

B) A seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes

C) A seizure that occurs only during sleep

D) A seizure triggered by emotional stress

None

14. Which diagnostic test is most helpful in identifying abnormal electrical activity in the brain during a seizure?

A) Blood glucose test

B) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

C) Skull X-ray

D) Urinalysis

None

15. What is the first priority when managing a patient with status epilepticus in an emergency setting?

A) Administering anticonvulsants

B) Securing the airway and ensuring adequate oxygenation

C) Checking blood sugar levels

D) Performing a CT scan

None

16. Which of the following is an appropriate first aid measure during a seizure?

A) Insert a spoon in the person's mouth

B) Hold the person’s limbs to prevent jerking

C) Roll the person onto their side after the seizure

D) Administer oral medication

None

17. Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of status epilepticus?

A) Respiratory arrest

B) Hyperthermia

C) Arrhythmia

D) Kidney stones

None

18. What is the purpose of administering thiamine in a patient with status epilepticus and suspected alcohol abuse?

A) To prevent aspiration pneumonia

B) To manage dehydration

C) To prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

D) To lower blood pressure

None

19. Which of the following is an appropriate action if a patient continues to have seizures despite initial treatment with benzodiazepines?

A) Administer oral anticonvulsants

B) Administer IV phenytoin

C) Perform a lumbar puncture

D) Wait for the seizure to subside on its own

None

20. Which of the following is NOT recommended during first aid for a patient experiencing a seizure?

A) Loosening tight clothing

B) Timing the seizure

C) Giving them something to drink

D) Protecting the head from injury

None

Name

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Mental Health Day 1

Welcome to your Mental Health Day 1

December 25, 2024

20 objectives

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is NOT a reason someone might commit suicide?

a) Adultery

b) Poverty

c) Having a chronic illness

d) Happiness

None

2. What mental health disorder is strongly associated with suicidal thoughts?

a) Schizophrenia

b) Gastroenteritis

c) Hypertension

d) Asthma

None

3. What is parasuicide?

a) Suicide committed in revenge

b) A non-fatal act of self-harm with intent to die

c) Suicide committed by multiple people at the same time

d) Suicide performed without intent

None

4. Which of the following statements is FALSE about methods of suicide?

a) Hanging is a common method

b) Poisoning is chosen due to its perceived painlessness

c) Drowning is the most common method

d) Drug overdose is a frequent method

None

5. What should be the nurse's first action when managing a patient admitted after a suicide attempt?

a) Isolate the patient

b) Take brief history

c) Sign a caution card

d) Remove harmful objects

None

6. What is the main goal of cognitive therapy in suicide prevention?

A) To induce sedation and prevent impulsive actions

B) To explore and change maladaptive thoughts and behaviors

C) To address physical injuries related to suicide attempts

D) To isolate the patient and provide intensive monitoring

None

7. Which type of suicide is characterized by the influence of another person’s suicide?

A) Parasuicide

B) Copycat suicide

C) Vengeance suicide

D) Mass suicide

None

8. What is the first priority in managing a patient who has attempted suicide by poisoning?

A) Conducting a mental status examination

B) Removing harmful objects from the patient’s vicinity

C) Administering the prescribed antidote or performing gastric lavage

D) Establishing a positive nurse-patient relationship

None

9. Which of the following is a therapeutic modality that may be ordered for severe depression leading to suicidal ideation?

A) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

C) Occupational Therapy

D) Group Therapy

None

10. Which symptom is NOT considered a suicide indicator?

A) Giving away personal belongings

B) Increased social activity

C) Expressing feelings of hopelessness

D) Sudden mood swings

None

11. Which of the following is a key difference between aggression and violence?

A) Aggression involves physical harm only.

B) Violence involves physical force causing harm, while aggression may only involve threats.

C) Aggression always results in harm to others.

D) Violence is only verbal, while aggression is physical.

None

12. Which of the following mental health conditions can contribute to aggression due to hallucinations?

A) Schizophrenia

B) Depression

C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

None

13. Which mood stabilizer can result in agranulocytosis?

A) Lithium carbonate

B) Sodium valproate

C) Carbamazepine

D) Valproic acid

None

14. Which of the following is the primary indication for mood stabilizers?

A) Anxiety disorders

B) Bipolar affective disorder

C) Schizophrenia

D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

None

15. What is a serious long-term side effect of lithium carbonate use?

A) Pancreatitis

B) Hypothyroidism

C) Hypertension

D) Liver failure

None

16. Which of the following is considered a psychiatric emergency?

a) A patient with a cold

b) A patient with suicidal behavior

c) A patient with a broken arm

d) A patient undergoing elective surgery

None

17. Which of the following is a suicide indicator?

a) Giving away personal belongings

b) Increased participation in social activities

c) Planning for future events

d) Improved appearance and self-care

None

18. Which of the following is the primary goal when managing aggression and violence in a psychiatric setting?

A) To protect the patient and others from harm

B) To sedate the patient immediately

C) To isolate the patient for observation

D) To discharge the patient as soon as possible

None

19. What should be done if a patient remains aggressive after physical restraint?

A) Remove the restraint immediately

B) Leave the patient alone

C) Seclude the patient and administer sedatives if needed

D) Transfer the patient to a different facility

None

20. Which medication is often used to calm a patient displaying aggressive behavior?

A) Antidepressants

B) Diazepam

C) Antibiotics

D) Insulin

None

Name

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Pharmacology Day 4 Quiz

Welcome to your Pharmacology Day 4 Quiz

December 25, 2024

15 objectives

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the primary method used to issue narcotic drugs in the pharmacy?

A) FIFO (First In, First Out)

B) FEFO (First Expiry, First Out)

C) LIFO (Last In, First Out)

D) FIDO (First In, Disperse Out)

None

2. What is the retention period for narcotic record books?

A) 6 months

B) 1 year

C) 2 years

D) 5 years

None

3. What is the legal implication of possessing narcotics unlawfully in Uganda?

A) A fine of 1 million Ugandan shillings

B) Up to 2 years imprisonment

C) A warning letter from the NDA

D) Community service for 6 months

None

4. Which antidote is administered for a narcotic overdose?

A) Naloxone

B) Clonidine

C) Methadone

D) Morphine

None

5. Which side effect is commonly associated with prolonged opioid use?

A) Diarrhea

B) Constipation

C) Increased appetite

D) Hypertension

None

6. Which of the following is a contraindication for using opioids?

A) Severe asthma

B) Diarrhea

C) Post-operative pain

D) Palliative care

None

7. What must be done if the keys to the narcotic cupboard are lost?

A) Use a master key

B) Report to the police

C) Replace the locks immediately

D) Wait until the next shift to report it

None

8. Which of the following is a common organophosphate used in agriculture?

A) Paracetamol

B) Fenthion

C) Aspirin

D) Ibuprofen

None

9. Which of the following is NOT a route of organophosphate absorption?

A) Ingestion

B) Cutaneous (through skin)

C) Inhalation

D) Intravenous (IV)

None

10. What is the goal of atropine administration in organophosphate poisoning?

A) To sedate the patient

B) To keep the airway dry

C) To increase urine output

D) To promote salivation

None

11. How long is a narcotic prescription valid in Uganda?

A) 7 days

B) 14 days

C) 1 month

D) 6 months

None

12. Which of the following opioid antagonists is used to reverse opioid overdose?

A) Morphine

B) Naloxone

C) Codeine

D) Fentanyl

None

13. Which of the following is a common indication for using morphine in palliative care?

A) Headache relief

B) Cancer-related pain

C) Mild musculoskeletal pain

D) Allergic reactions

None

14. Which antidote is primarily used to treat organophosphate poisoning?

A) Atropine

B) Penicillin

C) Morphine

D) Haloperidol

None

15. Not many questions that could be made from the work, this should be enough for now.

It's okay

Understandable

None

Name

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Pharmacology Day 2 and 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Pharmacology Day 2 and 3 Quiz

December 25, 2024

25 objectives

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for the development and maintenance of male characteristics?

a) Estrogen

b) Progesterone

c) Testosterone

d) Cortisol

None

2. Which hormone stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone?

a) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

b) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

c) Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH)

d) Prolactin

None

3. Which of the following is an anabolic effect of testosterone?

a) Growth of facial and body hair

b) Deepening of the voice

c) Promotion of muscle growth and strength

d) Enlargement of the prostate gland

None

4. Which of the following drugs is used specifically for the treatment of endometriosis by suppressing ovulation?

a) Testosterone

b) Danazol

c) Fluoxymesterone

d) Oxandrolone

None

5. Which of the following is a contraindication for androgen therapy?

a) Hypogonadism

b) Delayed puberty

c) Breast cancer in males

d) Pregnancy

None

6. What is a common side effect of testosterone therapy in men?

a) Increased estrogen levels

b) Testicular atrophy

c) Increased production of thyroid hormones

d) Hypertension

None

7. Which anti-androgen drug is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

a) Spironolactone

b) Flutamide

c) Finasteride

d) Ketoconazole

None

8. Which of the following is a common side effect of anti-androgens like spironolactone in women?

a) Increased libido

b) Decreased hair growth

c) Hyperkalemia

d) Hypoglycemia

None

9. Which of the following correctly describes impotence?

a) The inability to achieve ejaculation

b) The inability to achieve or maintain an erection

c) The inability to achieve sexual desire

d) The inability to achieve orgasm

None

10. What is the primary neurotransmitter involved in initiating an erection?

a) Dopamine

b) Acetylcholine

c) Serotonin

d) Nitric oxide (NO)

None

11. What class of drugs does sildenafil belong to?

a) Central conditioners

b) Peripheral initiators

c) Peripheral inhibitors

d) Central initiators

None

12. Tadalafil has a longer duration of action compared to sildenafil. How long can tadalafil's effects last?

a) 4-6 hours

b) 8-12 hours

c) 12-24 hours

d) 24-36 hours

None

13. What is the primary purpose of vaccines?

A) To cure diseases

B) To provide nutrition

C) To stimulate the immune system to develop immunity

D) To enhance physical strength

None

14. Which type of immunity involves the body actively producing its own antibodies?

A) Passive Immunity

B) Active Immunity

C) Artificial Passive Immunity

D) Innate Immunity

None

15. Which of the following vaccines is an example of a live attenuated vaccine?

A) Hepatitis B vaccine

B) DPT vaccine

C) Measles vaccine

D) PCV10 vaccine

None

16. What is the primary role of the cold chain in immunization programs?

A) To enhance the taste of vaccines

B) To ensure vaccines are stored and transported at appropriate temperatures

C) To increase the efficacy of oral vaccines

D) To improve vaccine production speed

None

17. Which type of immunity is transferred from a mother to her baby through the placenta?

A) Artificial Active Immunity

B) Natural Passive Immunity

C) Artificial Passive Immunity

D) Natural Active Immunity

None

18. Which of the following is a characteristic of innate immunity?

A) It provides specific protection against a particular pathogen.

B) It involves the production of antibodies.

C) It is present from birth and provides general protection.

D) It is acquired after exposure to a pathogen or vaccination.

None

19. Which component of the immune system is primarily responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens?

A) B cells

B) T cells

C) Phagocytes

D) Natural Killer (NK) cells

None

20. Which of the following best describes the role of immunological agents?

A) They are antibiotics used to kill bacteria.

B) They are drugs that modify the immune system's activity.

C) They are painkillers used to reduce inflammation.

D) They are vitamins that boost overall health.

None

21. Which type of drug would most likely be used to prevent organ transplant rejection?

A) Antibiotics

B) Immunosuppressants

C) Immunostimulants

D) Antivirals

None

22. What is the primary function of interferons in the immune system?

A) They increase the production of red blood cells.

B) They interfere with viral replication and enhance immune response.

C) They suppress the immune system to prevent autoimmune diseases.

D) They promote the growth of bacteria in the gut.

None

23. Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by DNA replication?

A) G1 Phase

B) S Phase

C) G2 Phase

D) Mitosis Phase

None

24. Which drug is commonly used to treat hormone-sensitive breast cancer in postmenopausal women?

A) Tamoxifen

B) Vinblastine

C) Cyclophosphamide

D) Fluorouracil

None

25. Which of the following is a common contraindication for antineoplastic agents?

A) Allergies

B) Diabetes

C) Pregnancy and lactation

D) Hypertension

None

Name

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Pharmacology Day 2 and 3 Quiz Read More »

Pharmacology Day 1

Welcome to your Pharmacology Day 1

December 25, 2024

20 Numbers, 15 objectives and 5 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Pharmacokinetics involves the following processes except:

A). Absorption

B). Metabolism

C). Excretion

D). Side effects

None

2. Most of the drugs taken orally are metabolized in:

A). Liver

B). Kidney

C). Lungs

D). Intestines

None

3. The following drugs belong to the same class except:

A). Morphine

B). Codeine

C). Pethidine

D). Amoxicillin

None

4. The abbreviation TDS means:

A). Four times daily

B). Three times daily

C). Two times daily

D). Once daily

None

5. Which one of the following names is a brand name?

A). Gentamicin

B). Quinine

C). Amoxil

D). Diclofenac

None

6. Which one of the following is not a common source of drugs used in Uganda?

A). Plants

B). Animals

C). Minerals

D). Urine

None

7. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of fertility drugs?

A) Anovulation

B) Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

C) Ovarian cysts

D) Unexplained infertility

None

8. Which hormone triggers the release of the mature egg from the follicle during ovulation?

A) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

B) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

C) Progesterone

D) Oxytocin

None

9. Which drug is used in the active management of the third stage of labor to reduce the risk of postpartum hemorrhage?

A) Misoprostol

B) Syntometrine

C) Clomifene

D) Bromocriptine

None

10. Which of the following is a common side effect of fertility medications?

A) Hypertension

B) Fluid retention

C) Hair loss

D) Hyperthyroidism

None

11. Which drug is used as a first-line treatment for hyperprolactinemia?

A) Clomifene

B) Bromocriptine

C) Oxytocin

D) Misoprostol

None

12. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the corpus luteum to produce progesterone?

A) Estrogen

B) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

C) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

D) Oxytocin

None

13. A 30-year-old female diagnosed with anovulatory infertility is prescribed clomiphene citrate 50 mg daily for 5 days, starting on day 5 of her menstrual cycle. After three cycles, there is no evidence of ovulation. What is the most appropriate next step in her treatment?

A. Discontinue clomiphene and switch to letrozole

B. Increase the dose of clomiphene to 100 mg daily

C. Start hCG injections

D. Initiate treatment with GnRH agonists

None

14. A 29-year-old post term woman is administered oxytocin. Which of the following is a primary indication for the use of oxytocin?

A. To stimulate ovarian follicle development

B. To increase milk production in lactating mothers

C. To induce or augment uterine contractions during labor

D. To trigger final oocyte maturation before ovulation

None

15. Which of the following hormones is classified as a gonadotropin?

A) Prolactin

B) Oxytocin

C) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

D) Estradiol

None

Fill In Questions

None

16. A drug that treats brachial asthma but can also be used to manage threatening abortions is __________.

17. The term given to undesirable and unintended effects that occur at normal drug doses is __________.

18. Drugs that inhibit uterine frequency and strength of contractions are called __________.

19. OD in prescription means________?

20. FSH stimulates the production of _____________ which is responsible for secondary sexual characteristics in females.

Name

Time's up

Pharmacology Day 1 Read More »

Surgical Nursing Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Surgical Nursing Week 1 Exam

December 25, 2024

40 Numbers, 30 objectives and 10 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A) Pseudomonas pyocyanea

B) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

None

2. What is the characteristic sign of viral conjunctivitis caused by adenovirus?

A) Mucopurulent discharge

B) Chemosis and follicles

C) Thick, yellow discharge

D) Pseudomembrane formation

None

3. Which of the following is a major complication of untreated trachoma?

A. Diabetic retinopathy

B. Blindness

C. Retinal detachment

D. Glaucoma

None

4. What is a common preventative measure to reduce the risk of developing a stye?

A) Regular application of antibiotic eye drops

B) Using artificial tears daily

C) Proper eyelid hygiene

D) Wearing sunglasses outdoors

None

5. What is the appropriate initial action for managing a patient with an embedded foreign body in the eye?

A) Attempt to remove the object with forceps

B) Cover the eye and refer to an ophthalmologist

C) Flush the eye with sterile saline

D) Apply antibiotic ointment

None

6. What condition is characterized by inflammation of the iris following blunt eye trauma?

A) Subconjunctival hemorrhage

B) Traumatic iritis

C) Orbital blowout fracture

D) Corneal abrasion

None

7. Which stage of trachoma is characterized by trichiasis?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage IV

D. Stage V

None

8. Which of the following is part of the SAFE strategy for trachoma management?

A. Steroid therapy

B. Antiviral medication

C. Facial cleanliness

D. Eye surgery for cataracts

None

9. Which of the following symptoms would most likely indicate a serious eye injury needing emergency care?

A) Mild eye irritation

B) Unequal pupil sizes

C) Slight redness of the eye

D) Mild tearing

None

10. Which investigation is used to highlight corneal ulcers during an eye examination?

A) Microbial cultures

B) Slit lamp examination with fluorescein dye

C) Tonometry

D) Ophthalmoscopy

None

11. What is the incubation period for trachoma?

A. 1-3 days

B. 5-21 days

C. 10-30 days

D. 2-4 weeks

None

12. What is the primary cause of optic nerve damage in glaucoma?

A) Elevated intraocular pressure

B) Inflammation of the eye

C) Retinal detachment

D) Lens dislocation

None

13. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing glaucoma?

A) Old age

B) Thin corneas

C) Family history

D) All of the above

None

14. What is the primary cause of trachoma?

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

None

15. Which test is primarily used to measure intraocular pressure in glaucoma diagnosis?

A) Perimetry

B) Gonioscopy

C) Tonometry

D) Pachymetry

None

16. Which of the following is a common first-line treatment for Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma?

A) Corticosteroids

B) Topical beta-blockers

C) Oral antibiotics

D) Vitrectomy

None

17. Which of the following is a recommended preventive measure for viral conjunctivitis?

A) Frequent hand washing

B) Use of topical steroids

C) Wearing an eye patch

D) Applying warm compresses

None

18. Which stage of trachoma involves the disappearance of follicles and the appearance of scars?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage III

D. Stage V

None

19. What is the purpose of a Gonioscopy in the diagnosis of glaucoma?

A) To measure the thickness of the cornea

B) To examine the optic nerve

C) To assess the angle of the anterior chamber

D) To test peripheral vision

None

20. Which of the following is NOT a recommended management strategy for bacterial conjunctivitis?

A) Application of topical antibiotics

B) Use of dark goggles

C) Application of a bandage over the eye

D) Avoidance of steroids

None

21. Which of the following is a typical symptom of an external stye?

A) Blurred vision

B) Painful yellowish spot on the eyelid margin

C) Loss of eyelashes

D) Decreased tear production

None

22. Which of the following is true regarding congenital glaucoma?

A) It typically presents in adults over the age of 60

B) It is characterized by the development of cataracts

C) It involves an increase in intraocular pressure from birth or shortly after

D) It is more common in females

None

23. Which of the following complications can arise if a foreign body is not promptly removed from the cornea?

A) Scleral rupture

B) Corneal ulceration

C) Retinal detachment

D) Macular degeneration

None

24. What is the main reason for the persistence of trachoma in certain communities?

A. High levels of UV radiation

B. Low prevalence of infectious diseases

C. Lack of access to healthcare and education

D. Excessive hygiene practices

None

25. Which of the following best describes a mature cataract?

A) The lens is partially opaque with some areas remaining clear.

B) The lens is completely opaque, leading to a significant reduction in vision.

C) The lens is swollen, appearing milky white.

D) The lens nucleus has liquefied and settled within the capsule.

None

26. Which symptom is NOT typically associated with cataracts?

A) Blurred vision

B) Halos around lights

C) Eye redness

D) Difficulty seeing at night

None

27. Which symptom is most commonly associated with adenoid hypertrophy?

A) Jaw deformities

B) Nasal obstruction

C) Persistent cough

D) Otitis media

None

28. What is the preferred antibiotic for treating Group A Streptococcal tonsillitis?

A) Amoxicillin

B) Penicillin

C) Erythromycin

D) Tetracycline

None

29. What is the primary function of the tympanic membrane?

A. To drain fluid from the middle ear

B. To protect the inner ear from loud sounds

C. To transmit sound waves from the outer ear to the ossicles

D. To equalize pressure in the ear

None

30. You know we cant forget to appreciate you for reaching this far, would free marks work for you?

Yah

Nah

None

31. The most significant risk factor for developing cataracts is __________?

32. A 65-year-old patient presents with gradual vision loss in both eyes. On examination, the lens appears cloudy. The most likely diagnosis is a __________.

33. During an eye examination, the intraocular pressure is measured using __________ to help diagnose glaucoma.

34. A patient presents with a painful, swollen eyelid and reports a small, tender bump near the edge of the eyelid. The likely diagnosis is a __________.

35. The presence of excess tearing in one or both eyes is referred to as __________, which can be a symptom of corneal irritation.

36. A patient experiences loss of smell after a head injury . This condition of loss of sense of smell is known as __________.

37. A patient reports intense eye pain, reduced vision, and a feeling of something in the eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals a small, circular area of corneal necrosis. The most likely diagnosis is a __________.

38. The muscles responsible for production of aqueous humor and changing the shape of the lens in the eye to focus on near or distant objects are part of the __________.

39. After prolonged exposure to a dusty environment, a patient presents with itching, redness/pink colouration, and a gritty sensation in the eyes. These symptoms suggest a diagnosis of __________.

40. ______________ refers to sensitivity to light.

Name

Time's up

Surgical Nursing Week 1 Exam Read More »

Surgical Nursing Day 3

Welcome to your Surgical Nursing Day 3

December 25, 2024

20 Numbers, 15 objectives and 5 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which bacterium is most commonly responsible for causing furunculosis in the ear?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Hemolytic streptococci

D) Candida albicans

None

2. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of ear furunculosis?

A) Sudden onset of vertigo

B) Pain and tenderness in the ear canal

C) Bilateral hearing loss

D) Chronic cough

None

3. A child presents with sudden ear pain and a feeling of fullness after playing outside. An insect is suspected to be in the ear. What is the first step in managing this situation?

A) Immediately syringe the ear with cold water

B) Attempt to grasp the insect with forceps

C) Instill clean cooking oil or water to kill the insect

D) Refer the child for surgery under general anesthesia

None

4. What is the primary reason for avoiding the use of forceps in removing smooth, round foreign bodies from the ear?

A) They can cause hearing loss

B) They may push the object further into the ear canal

C) They can break the foreign body into smaller pieces

D) They are not sterile

None

5. A young child has inserted a bead into their nose. Which of the following removal techniques is most appropriate?

A) Syringe with water

B) Use a curved hook or cerumen loop

C) Perform positive pressure ventilation

D) Refer immediately for endoscopic removal

None

6. Which of the following conditions is most likely to mimic the symptoms of ear furunculosis?

A) Otosclerosis

B) Otitis externa

C) Cholesteatoma

D) Meniere's disease

None

7. In which of the following scenarios would referral to an ENT specialist be most appropriate for a patient with ear furunculosis?

A) If the furuncle does not respond to initial treatment

B) If the patient complains of mild itching in the ear

C) If the patient has no fever

D) If the patient reports clear fluid drainage

None

8. Which of the following is NOT a recommended method for removing a foreign body from the ear canal?

A) Irrigation with warm water

B) Use of Hartmann (crocodile) forceps

C) Syringing with cold water

D) Microsuction

None

9. What should be avoided when removing an impacted seed from the ear canal?

A) Syringing with warm water

B) Use of a foreign body hook

C) Immediate referral to an ENT specialist

D) Using crocodile forceps

None

10. After successfully removing a foreign body from a child’s ear, what is an essential next step?

A) Discharge the patient immediately

B) Administer a sedative

C) Re-examine the ear canal

D) Advise the patient to use cotton swabs for ear cleaning

None

11. Which of the following foreign bodies in the ear requires immediate removal due to the risk of damage to the tympanic membrane?

A) Small pebble

B) Button battery

C) Plastic bead

D) Cotton ball

None

12. A patient presents with a fishbone stuck in their throat. Which initial management step is most appropriate?

A) Encourage the patient to swallow bread

B) Attempt to remove the bone with fingers

C) Perform an emergency tracheotomy

D) Refer immediately to an ENT specialist

None

13. Which of the following is a non-invasive technique recommended for the removal of a nasal foreign body in a cooperative child?

A) Suction

B) Positive pressure

C) Balloon catheter

D) Hooked probe

None

14. Why is irrigation generally not recommended for the removal of nasal foreign bodies?

A) It is ineffective for most objects.

B) It increases the risk of aspiration or choking.

C) It causes more pain to the patient.

D) It is too costly compared to other methods.

None

15. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for a patient with anterior epistaxis?

A) Applying nasal packing

B) Tilting the head back

C) Compressing the nostrils

D) Inserting a nasal tampon

None

Fill In Questions

None

16. The medical term for earwax is __________.

17. The instrument commonly used for grasping and holding small objects or tissues in ENT procedures is known as __________ forceps.

18. __________ is a method of earwax removal that involves using a vacuum-like device to gently remove wax from the ear canal.

19. The medical term for a nosebleed is __________.

20. __________ is a vitamin commonly used to aid in the clotting of blood and prevent bleeding disorders.

Name

Time's up

Surgical Nursing Day 3 Read More »