Quizzes & Surveys - Page 5 of 14

Medicine Day 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Medicine Day 3 Quiz

October 4, 2025

Attempt all Numbers.

1. The adrenal medulla primarily secretes which type of hormones?

A) Steroid hormones

B) Catecholamines

C) Thyroid hormones

D) Glucagon

None

2. Which hormone is primarily responsible for increasing blood glucose levels?

A) Insulin

B) Somatostatin

C) Glucagon

D) Oxytocin

None

3. Which condition is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood?

A) Gigantism

B) Acromegaly

C) Hyperthyroidism

D) Addison's disease

None

4. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of calcium levels in the blood by increasing calcium absorption from the bones?

A) Calcitonin

B) Parathyroid hormone

C) Insulin

D) Cortisol

None

5. A patient presents with enlarged hands, feet, and facial features, but normal height. Which condition is most likely?

A) Gigantism

B) Acromegaly

C) Marfan syndrome

D) Hyperthyroidism

None

6. What is the primary reason for the increase in IGF-1 levels? n

A) Increased insulin production

B) Decreased thyroid hormone levels

C) Excessive secretion of growth hormone

D) Increased prolactin production

None

7. Which of the following is the first-line surgical treatment for acromegaly?

A) Craniotomy

B) Transsphenoidal surgery

C) Laparoscopic adrenalectomy

D) Radiation therapy

None

8. Which of the following is a common symptom seen in both acromegaly and gigantism?

A) Hypocalcemia

B) Decreased muscle mass

C) Increased sweating

D) Weight loss

None

9. Which of the following is the most common form of dwarfism?

A) Proportionate dwarfism

B) Disproportionate dwarfism

C) Achondroplasia

D) Panhypopituitarism

None

10. Which clinical feature is NOT usually associated with Addison's disease?

A) Hyperpigmentation

B) Weight gain

C) Hypotension

D) Fatigue

None

11. What is the most common cause of Addison’s disease?

A) Tuberculosis

B) Autoimmune disease

C) Cancer

D) Adrenal hemorrhage

None

12. What is the hallmark sign of an adrenal crisis in a patient with Addison’s disease?

A) Hypertension

B) Severe hypoglycemia

C) Hyperpigmentation

D) Orthostatic hypotension

None

13. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for managing panhypopituitarism?

A) Thyroid hormone replacement therapy

B) Cortisol replacement therapy

C) Growth hormone therapy

D) Insulin therapy

None

14. Which hormone's deficiency leads to decreased lactation in breastfeeding women?

A) Growth hormone (GH)

B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

C) Prolactin

D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

None

15. What is the primary role of aldosterone in the body?

A) Regulating glucose metabolism

B) Promoting protein synthesis

C) Maintaining electrolyte balance

D) Enhancing immune response

None

16. What is the primary purpose of administering hydrocortisone in patients with Addison's disease?

A) To regulate blood pressure

B) To replace missing glucocorticoids

C) To treat electrolyte imbalances

D) To enhance growth hormone levels

None

17. Which dietary modification is essential for patients with Addison's disease?

A) High carbohydrate intake

B) Low-sodium diet

C) Adequate sodium intake

D) High-fat diet

None

18. What is a recommended strategy to manage the risk of osteoporosis associated with glucocorticoid therapy in Addison's disease?

A) Increase intake of calcium and vitamin D

B) Limit physical activity

C) Avoid calcium supplements

D) Reduce hydration

None

19. A 45-year-old patient with a history of Addison's disease presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, dizziness, and confusion. The patient reports missing doses of their hydrocortisone medication during a recent illness. Question: What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A) Administer oral glucose and electrolytes

B) Provide intravenous fluids and high-dose hydrocortisone

C) Increase the patient's oral intake of sodium

D) Administer a diuretic to manage fluid balance

None

20. A nurse is conducting a follow-up visit for a patient with Addison’s disease who has been on long-term glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid therapy. The patient reports feeling unusually fatigued, experiencing frequent dizziness, and has noticed a recent increase in skin pigmentation. The patient’s blood pressure readings are consistently low, and they mention frequent episodes of craving salty foods. Question: Which nursing intervention is most critical to address the patient's current symptoms and concerns?

A) Increase the patient’s fludrocortisone dosage to manage blood pressure

B) Administer a diuretic to control fluid retention and blood pressure

C) Educate the patient about the importance of stress management and increasing glucocorticoid doses during illness

D) Encourage the patient to reduce dietary salt intake to prevent hypertension

None

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Medicine Day 3 Quiz Read More »

Medicine Day 1 and 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Medicine Day 1 and 2 Quiz

October 4, 2025

Attempt all Numbers.

1,. Which cranial nerve is affected in Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Fourth

B) Fifth

C) Sixth

D) Seventh

None

2. Which branches of the trigeminal nerve are most commonly affected in Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) V1 and V2

B) V1 and V3

C) V2 and V3

D) V1, V2, and V3

None

3. Which of the following is the most common cause of classic Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Demyelinating diseases

B) Tumor compression

C) Vascular compression

D) Idiopathic causes

None

4. Which of the following is a first-line medication for managing Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Ibuprofen

B) Gabapentin

C) Carbamazepine

D) Phenytoin

None

5. Which symptom is least likely to be associated with Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Severe facial pain

B) Lacrimation

C) Rhinorrhea

D) Bilateral facial involvement

None

6. Which of the following is the most important consideration when educating a patient with Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) The need for regular exercise

B) Avoidance of cold weather

C) Identification of pain triggers

D) Maintaining a high-protein diet

None

7. Which of the following lifestyle modifications may help reduce the frequency of Trigeminal Neuralgia attacks?

A) Increasing dietary salt

B) Regular use of warm compresses

C) Avoiding stress

D) Sleeping on the affected side

None

8. Which cranial nerve is affected in Bell’s palsy?

A) Cranial Nerve V

B) Cranial Nerve VII

C) Cranial Nerve IX

D) Cranial Nerve X

None

9. Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of Bell's palsy?

A) Bilateral facial paralysis

B) Rapid onset of unilateral facial paralysis

C) Gradual onset of facial weakness

D) Sudden loss of vision

None

10. In Bell’s palsy, what is the expected outcome of the "Bell's Sign"?

A) The affected eye closes completely

B) The affected eye remains open, and the eyeball rolls upward

C) The unaffected eye closes partially

D) No movement in the affected eye

None

11. Which of the following complications is directly associated with the inability to close the eye in Bell’s palsy?

A) Corneal abrasion

B) Increased intraocular pressure

C) Glaucoma

D) Retinal detachment

None

12. The use of corticosteroids in Bell’s palsy is primarily aimed at:

A) Reducing nerve inflammation

B) Preventing seizures

C) Lowering blood sugar levels

D) Treating viral infections

None

13. What is the recommended initial treatment for Bell’s palsy?

A) Surgical intervention

B) High-dose corticosteroids

C) Antibiotics

D) Physical therapy

None

14. Which of the following is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?

a) Hypotension

b) Aneurysm rupture

c) Hypertension

d) Trauma

None

15. Which diagnostic tool is most effective for detecting the presence of an acute intracranial hemorrhage?

a) X-ray

b) Ultrasound

c) CT scan

d) EEG

None

16. What is the most immediate intervention for a patient presenting with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 after an intracranial hemorrhage?

a) Initiate IV fluids

b) Administer antihypertensives

c) Intubation and airway protection

d) Start physical therapy

None

17. Which of the following is a common sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants?

a) Vomiting

b) Hyperactivity

c) Increased appetite

d) Swollen fontanel

None

18. What is the primary neurotransmitter that decreases in Parkinson's disease?

a) Serotonin

b) Dopamine

c) Acetylcholine

d) GABA

None

19. Which of the following is a common motor symptom of Parkinson's disease?

a) Anosmia

b) Bradykinesia

c) Insomnia

d) Orthostatic hypotension

None

20. What is the main role of Levodopa in the management of Parkinson's disease?

a) Increase acetylcholine levels

b) Inhibit dopamine receptors

c) Replace dopamine

d) Reduce inflammation

None

21. The first phase of the nursing process........................?

22. Which cranial nerve is primarily assessed by asking the patient to identify different smells?

23. What type of nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers?

24. Lacrimation, a sign in trigeminal neuralgia also means......................?

25. How was the quiz?

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Medicine Day 1 and 2 Quiz Read More »

Paediatrics and Palliative Care Certification Exam

Welcome to your Research Day 2

Ten Questions, 5 MCQ's and 5 Fill-in's. Those are 10

October 4, 2025

What defines a variable in research?

a. It must have at least one value

b. It is measurable and varies among subjects or objects

c. It is constant and does not change

d. It is not observable

None

In a study examining the impact of teaching methods on student performance, which of the following is the dependent variable (DV)?

A. Teaching methods

B. Student performance

C. Extraneous variables

D. Moderating variables

None

What is the key characteristic of a confounding variable in research?

A. It is a variable that is manipulated by the researcher.

B. It is an intervening variable.

C. It influences the dependent variable and may confuse the relationship with the independent variable.

D. It is unrelated to the purpose of the study.

None

Which of the following is a characteristic of a good research problem?

A. It must be complex and multifaceted.

B. It should not be of personal interest to the researcher.

C. It should be novel and contribute new information.

D. It should have a broad focus.

None

In a research topic, what is the purpose of including both independent and dependent variables?

A. To confuse the readers.

B. To make the topic longer.

C. To clarify the research area.

D. To provide options for future research.

None

A variable is a measurable characteristic that assumes different values among the subjects or objects, meaning it has at least __________ values.

If all members of a class are identical in a certain characteristic, it is referred to as a __________.

An independent variable (IV) is a variable that a researcher manipulates or controls in order to determine its effect on the--------------- variable.

Extraneous variables (EVs) are variables that aren't related to the purpose of the study but may affect the DV if not -------------.

A ------------- is a statement that expresses the area of concern or difficulty to be studied in research.

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Paediatrics Day 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Research Day 1

At the end of the quiz, enter your correct email to receive your results and corrections.

What does the term "REsearch" imply in the context of the discussion?

a) Repeating the same actions multiple times

b) Redefining existing concepts

c) Regurgitating previously known information

d) Retrieving data randomly

None

What is the primary purpose of research, as defined in the discussion?

a) To validate preconceived notions

b) To conduct experiments without a specific goal

c) To fill a knowledge gap or address a question

d) To generate random data for academic purposes

None

Which of the following best describes the "gap" in research?

a) A physical distance between researchers and subjects

b) The difference between current and ideal situations

c) An empty space in research documents

d) A measurement error in data collection

None

What is a "phenomenon" in the context of research?

a) A proven scientific theory

b) An observable event or situation that cannot be easily explained

c) A common misconception

d) A term used in qualitative research

None

Which term describes the degree of consistency or accuracy in measuring attributes with an instrument?

a) Validity

b) Reliability

c) Hypothesis

d) Phenomenology

None

What does the term "blind" mean in clinical trials?

a) Participants are unaware of which trial arm they are in

b) Participants are provided with extra information about the trial

c) Researchers do not analyze the trial data

d) Participants are not allowed to participate in the trial

None

What characteristic of research ensures that the research has a clear and focused purpose?

a) Empirical

b) Specific/Purposiveness

c) Objectivity

d) Testability

None

Which type of research aims to describe an experience as it is actually lived by an individual?

a) Correlational research

b) Experimental research

c) Phenomenological research

d) Descriptive research

None

What type of data does quantitative research primarily deal with?

a) Non-numerical data

b) Qualitative data

c) Numerical data

d) Observational data

None

Why is research often regarded as a science?

a) Because it always involves laboratory experiments

b) Because it follows a systematic and structured approach

c) Because it relies solely on subjective opinions

d) Because it doesn't require empirical evidence

None

A ____________ is an observable event or situation that cannot be easily explained in logical terms.

____________ is the degree of consistency or accuracy in measuring attributes with an instrument.

The term "blind" in clinical trials refers to participants being unaware of which trial arm they are in, helping to control ____________.

____________ research is driven by a scientist's curiosity or interest in a scientific question and seeks to expand knowledge.

In ____________ research, researchers rely on open-ended interviews, observations, and non-nemerical type of data, to explore and understand phenomena.

Experimental research involves the manipulation of the _____________ variable to examine causality.

In probability sampling, every member of the population has an _____________ chance of being selected.

The process of systematically collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data to answer a research question or solve a problem is called _____________.

How was the quiz?

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Moderate

Hard

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Paediatrics Day 2 Quiz Read More »

Paediatrics Day 1 Quiz

Welcome to your Disaster Introduction Quiz

Only 10 MCQ Questions. To get a copy of results sent to your email, please fill in the details after the quiz! Good Luck.

What is the primary focus of disaster epidemiology?

a) Study of patterns of disease occurrence in human populations.

b) Investigation of disaster response organizations.

c) Analysis of economic impacts of disasters.

d) Examination of environmental degradation.

None

Which term refers to the lack of capacity to deal with potential threats, stemming from various factors?

a) Residual risk

b) Capacity building

c) Vulnerability

d) Intensity

None

What is the main characteristic of a catastrophe?

a) Limited impact on communities

b) Minor disruption of lifeline services

c) Large scope of impact and severe damage

d) Gradual and slow onset

None

Which type of vulnerability is related to inadequate protection of assets?

a) Physical Vulnerability

b) Social Vulnerability

c) Economic Vulnerability

d) Environmental Vulnerability

None

What is the term used for sorting out disaster victims based on the extent of severity?

a) Intensity

b) Scope

c) Controllability

d) Triage

None

What is the likelihood of specific hazard occurrence and its probable consequence called?

a) Acceptable risk

b) Residual risk

c) Disaster risk

d) Catastrophic risk

None

What phase of a disaster occurs when a disaster actually happens and individuals try to survive?

a) Pre-impact Phase

b) Impact Phase

c) Post Impact Phase

d) Catastrophic Phase

None

Which stage of emotional response involves victims denying the magnitude of the problem?

a) Strong Emotional Response

b) Acceptance stage

c) Recovery stage

d) Denial stage

None

What type of vulnerability is determined by economic status and resources available?

a) Economic Vulnerability

b) Physical Vulnerability

c) Social Vulnerability

d) Environmental Vulnerability

None

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Abnormal Midwifery Day 6 Quiz

Welcome to your Palliative Care Quiz

Remember to put your email at the end to receive your results!

What is the primary goal of palliative care?

a) To cure the underlying illness

b) To provide comfort and improve the quality of life for patients and families

c) To promote alternative treatments

d) To hasten the end of life

None

Which of the following is not an attribute of palliative care?

a) Holistic approach

b) Pain and symptom management

c) Cure-focused treatment

d) Communication and coordination

None

What is the main difference between hospice care and palliative care?

a) Hospice care is for cancer patients only, while palliative care is for all illnesses.

b) Hospice care is provided in a dedicated facility, while palliative care can be provided in various settings.

c) Hospice care focuses on cure-based treatments, while palliative care emphasizes comfort and quality of life.

d) Hospice care is available only during the terminal phase of an illness, while palliative care can be initiated at any stage.

None

What is the major aim of hospice care?

a) To provide curative treatments for patients with life-limiting diseases

b) To offer emotional support for patients and their families

c) To improve the quality of life and provide compassionate care for patients and families facing life-limiting illnesses

d) To perform medical research and advance treatments for life-limiting diseases

None

Which of the following is not an essential component of holistic care in palliative care?

a) Physical care

b) Emotional care

c) Financial support

d) Spiritual care

None

What is the purpose of community-based palliative care?

a) To provide palliative care only in hospitals

b) To extend palliative care services to the community

c) To focus on pain and symptom management only

d) To offer care exclusively to cancer patients

None

What is the main advantage of home-based palliative care?

a) It provides specialized medical treatments at home.

b) It is exclusively focused on physical symptom relief.

c) It enables comprehensive care for patients and their families at home.

d) It is only suitable for patients with terminal illnesses.

None

What is the major difference between facility day care and community day care models of palliative care?

a) Facility day care is provided within the facility, while community day care is offered in a community.

b) Facility day care allows patients to interact with other patients, while community day care does not involve socialization.

c) Facility day care provides only medical treatments, while community day care focuses on emotional support.

d) Facility day care is provided at the patient's home, while community day care is delivered in a healthcare facility.

None

Which of the following is not an attribute of palliative care?

a) Continuity of care

b) Interdisciplinary care team

c) Curative treatment-focused

d) Dignity and respect

None

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Palliative Care Day 7 Quiz

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 7 Quiz

October 4, 2025

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is a common source of anger in palliative care patients and their families?

A) Lack of interest in the patient's condition

B) Fear of the unknown

C) Satisfaction with the healthcare services

D) Increased communication from healthcare providers

None

2. Which approach is most effective in screening for anger in palliative care patients?

A) BATHE technique

B) Ignoring the patient's emotions

C) Increasing the patient's medication

D) Avoiding discussions about anger

None

3. How can healthcare providers show empathy to palliative care patients and their families?

A) Ignoring their concerns

B) Minimizing their feelings

C) Actively listening and offering comfort

D) Avoiding communication

None

4. What should healthcare providers avoid doing when a palliative care patient expresses anger?

A) Responding with calm and kindness

B) Touching the patient without consent

C) Allowing the patient to calm down first

D) Maintaining a respectful distance

None

5. Which technique helps to understand a patient's spiritual needs in palliative care?

A) WPC Chunk technique

B) HOPE tool

C) FLACC tool

D) Focusing solely on medical treatments

None

6. Which area of the Johari window involves information known to self but unknown to others?

A) Open area

B) Blind area

C) Hidden area

D) Dark area

None

7. Which statement best describes the "dark area" of the Johari window?

A) Known to self and others

B) Known to self but unknown to others

C) Known to others but unknown to self

D) Unknown to both self and others

None

8. Mr. Smith is a 68-year-old palliative care patient with advanced lung cancer. He has been increasingly irritable and verbally aggressive towards the nursing staff. He expresses frustration about his loss of independence and fear of becoming a burden to his family. Question: What is the most appropriate initial response from the nursing staff to Mr. Smith's aggression?

A) Tell him to calm down and that his behavior is unacceptable

B) Ignore his aggression and continue with care

C) Respond with empathy and explore his feelings of frustration and fear

D) Immediately administer a sedative to calm him down

None

9. What is the primary goal of euthanasia?

A) To prolong life at all costs

B) To relieve pain and suffering

C) To increase medical intervention

D) To avoid legal complications

None

10. Which of the following best describes non-voluntary euthanasia?

A) A patient makes an autonomous decision to end their life

B) A decision is made for an unconscious or incapable patient

C) A decision is made against a patient's explicit wishes

D) A patient receives pain-relieving treatment that shortens their life

None

11. Which ethical principle supports the patient's right to make decisions about their own life and death?

12. Which quadrant of the Johari Window represents information that is known to both the self and others?

13. A form of euthanasia where death is brought about by an omission of oxygen is called...........euthanasia?

14. A progressive illness with distressing symptoms that cannot be cured by any treatment is termed as a.................illness?

15. Free mark?

Yes

Nah

None

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Palliative Care Day 7 Quiz Read More »

Palliative Care Day 6 Quiz

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 6 Quiz

October 4, 2025

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following drugs is recommended for a cancer patient experiencing mild pain?

(a) Paracetamol.

(b) Codeine.

(d) Ibuprofen.

None

2. Why is it necessary to assess each symptom separately in patients with multiple symptoms?

A) To make the process quicker

B) To prevent diagnostic errors

C) To ensure each symptom is accurately diagnosed and managed

D) To simplify the treatment plan

None

3. Metastatic spinal cord compression commonly occur in patients with

(a) metastatic breast cancer.

(b) severe unremitting back pain.

(d) metastatic vertebral disease.

None

4. What should be included in taking a detailed history for symptom assessment?

A) Onset, severity, character, and impact on quality of life

B) Only the severity and character

C) Only medication history

D) None of the above

None

5. When assessing nausea and vomiting, what should be included in the history taking?

A) The amount, content, and odor of vomit

B) The patient's favorite foods

C) The patient's hydration status only

D) The patient's family medical history

None

6. Which anti-emetic is suitable for treating nausea caused by delayed gastric emptying?

A) Haloperidol

B) Metoclopramide

C) Cyclizine

D) Prochlorperazine

None

7. What is a common cause of mouth sores and dysphagia?

A) Hypercalcemia

B) Poor dental hygiene and infections

C) Pancreatitis

D) Heart disease

None

8. What dietary modification can help in managing nausea and vomiting?

A) High-fat diet

B) Small, frequent meals

C) High-sugar diet

D) Spicy foods

None

9. Which medication is recommended for treating oral candidiasis causing mouth sores?

A) Bisacodyl

B) Nystatin oral drops

C) Metoclopramide

D) Haloperidol

None

10. What is the recommended treatment for severe dehydration due to diarrhea?

A) Increasing solid food intake

B) IV fluids

C) Avoiding all medications

D) Reducing water intake

None

11. What is the initial non-pharmacological intervention for hiccups due to diaphragm irritation?

A) Use of bronchodilators

B) Pharyngeal stimulation by swallowing dry bread

C) Prescribing anti-psychotic medication

D) Immediate surgery

None

12. Which of the following is a common cause of fatigue in palliative care patients?

A) Overhydration

B) Increased physical activity

C) Nutritional deficiencies

D) Improved sleep hygiene

None

13. Which medication is commonly used to manage confusion caused by metabolic disturbances in palliative care patients?

A) Antibiotics

B) Diazepam

C) Antihypertensives

D) Insulin

None

14. What is a common cause of anxiety in palliative care patients?

A) Elevated mood

B) Physical comfort

C) Emotional distress

D) Increased appetite

None

15. Which is a non-pharmacological intervention for managing pruritus (itching) in palliative care patients?

A) Increasing sugar intake

B) Keeping nails short and rubbing the skin gently

C) Encouraging sun exposure

D) Applying alcohol-based lotions

None

16. Which of the following can cause hyperhidrosis in palliative care patients?

A) Liver metastases

B) Low doses of morphine

C) Cold weather

D) Overhydration

None

17. A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing severe fatigue due to advanced cancer. The patient reports feeling constantly tired and has difficulty performing daily activities. What should the nurse prioritize in the patient's care?

A) Increasing the patient's physical activity significantly

B) Ignoring the fatigue and focusing on other symptoms

C) Implementing energy conservation techniques

D) Reducing the patient's food intake

None

18. A palliative care nurse is managing a patient who has advanced heart failure and is experiencing both severe fatigue and insomnia. The patient is on multiple medications, including opioids for pain management. The patient’s family is concerned about the patient’s declining quality of life. Which approach should the nurse prioritize to address both fatigue and insomnia effectively, considering the patient's overall condition and medication regimen?

A) Increase the dose of opioids to manage pain better

B) Implement sleep hygiene practices and adjust medications contributing to fatigue

C) Encourage the patient to participate in vigorous exercise

D) Focus solely on treating the underlying heart failure

None

19. The best opportunity for palliative care to be provided to restore hope and see death as being positive and meaningful experience and quality of life is restored is when.,.. ....?

A. One requests for euthanasia.

B. Patient refuses treatment.

C. When patient is unable to be involved in decision making to the fullest event by his/ her capacity.

D. When sharing information and confidential matters at the end of life.

None

20. What is the primary purpose of breaking bad news to a patient?

A. To provide false hope

B. To avoid informing the patient about their condition

C. To reduce uncertainty and help the patient make informed decisions

D. To maintain trust

None

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Palliative Care Day 6 Quiz Read More »

Teaching Methodology Day 4

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 4

Good Luck

1. What is one major advantage of educational technology?

A. It reduces the need for textbooks.

B. It enhances efficiency by streamlining administrative tasks.

C. It eliminates the need for teachers.

D. It provides entertainment during classes.

None

2. Which of the following is NOT considered an example of educational technology?

A. Radios

B. Chalkboards

C. Computers

D. Projectors

None

3. Which principle is important for selecting teaching aids to ensure they meet instructional objectives?

A. Principle of Adaptation

B. Principle of Selection

C. Principle of Physical Control

D. Principle of Cost-Effectiveness

None

4. What is one disadvantage of using computers in education?

A. They are inexpensive.

B. They can guide psychomotor skills.

C. They may distract students if used improperly.

D. They eliminate the need for teachers.

None

5. What factor should a teacher consider when selecting audiovisual aids based on the class size?

A. Relevance to learners

B. Visibility and material size

C. Up-to-date content

D. Simplicity of use

None

6. What is a primary characteristic of good teaching aids?

A. They are expensive.

B. They are complex and detailed.

C. They are relevant and directly related to the subject matter.

D. They are rare and unique.

None

7. What is one advantage of using handouts in the classroom?

A. They are always up-to-date.

B. They ensure all students receive the same information.

C. They require no preparation.

D. They replace the need for lectures.

None

8. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using flip charts?

A. They are inexpensive.

B. They are easy to carry.

C. They need skill to use effectively.

D. They can have diagrams and illustrations.

None

9. What is an essential feature of audiovisual aids to effectively stimulate learner interest?

A. They are inexpensive.

B. They are interactive and engaging.

C. They replace textbooks.

D. They are simple and monotonous.

None

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Teaching Methodology Day 4 Read More »

Abnormal Midwifery Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Pharmacology & Mental

This Pharmacology & Mental quiz is marked out of 100%,

Make sure to input your RIGHT EMAIL because you will receive your RESULTS and ANSWERS to the email you input at the end of this Pharmacology & Mental quiz.

1. Which of the following controls the release of gonadotrophins?

Corpus Luteum

Anterior Pituitary

Posterior Pituitary

Hypothalamus

None

2. Which of the following is not a gonad tropic substance?

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

Leydig Hormone

Luteinizing Hormone

HCG

None

3. The following are used in the treatment of infertility except?

Clomiphene

HCG

Finasteride

Metformin

None

4. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication of follicle stimulating hormone?

Pregnancy

Anovulation

Streptomycin users

Pituitary disorders

None

5. Which of the following drugs is NOT an ANABOLIC STEROID?

Testosterone

Nandrolone

Stanozolol

Oxandrolone

None

6. Which of the following is the drug choice for erectile dysfunction?

Finasteride

Sildenafil

Nandrolone

Papaverine

None

7. Which of the following is a uterine relaxant?

Oxytocin

Salbutamol

Dinoprostone

Misoprostone

None

8. What is the most dangerous adverse effect of ergometrine?

Mood change

Nausea

Hypertension

Dizziness

None

9. Which of the following is a common side effect of anticancer drugs?

Gynecomastia

Loss of memory

Obesity

Alopecia

None

10. Which of the following drugs would a nurse keep under lock and key?

Pethedine

Ephedrine

Caffeine

Misoprostol

None

11. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder common among children?

Mania

Mental retardation

Post traumatic stress disorder

Attention deficit hyperactive disorder

None

12. Which of the following is the first stage of aggressions and violence?

Shouting

Restlessness

Punching objects

Emotional heightening

None

13. Which of the following is the most likely disorder after rape and defilement?

PTSD

Aggression

Delirium

Confusion

None

14. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of delirium?

Genetics

Epilepsy

Nutritional deficiencies

Cerebral infection

None

15. JADIL is 12years old and his mother has to take care of him as though he is a 6 year old. What is his 1.Q

50%

200

200%

None

16. A disorder characterized by violation of rules of society and abuse of others rights

Frequent lying disorder

Juvenile stealing

Conduct disorder

Personality disorder

None

17. Patients with substance abuse would benefit from?

Simple concrete tasks

Group activities

Occupational tasks

Weekly day out

None

18. A childhood disorder characterized by lack of social smile not even to the mother is called?

Autism

Rett’s disease

Conduct disorder

Antisocial disorder

None

19. The commonest form of epileptic seizures is

Partial seizures

Generalized seizures

Temporal lobe seizures

Status epilepticus

None

The psychiatric emergency which presents with sudden outbursts of collapse and fear of doom is.

Hysteria

Suicidal attempts

Obsessive compulsive disorder

Panic attack

None

20. The cells responsible for production of testosterone are known as?

21. The adverse effect of testosterone that results into production of breast milk among men is referred to as?

22. The major GIT side effect of morphine is

23. The main effect of opioids use that make them to be highly controlled drugs

24. A chemical substance that stops effects of a poison is referred as?

25. Which drug is given in patients with Wernicke's encephalopathy in chronic alcoholism?

26. What drug is given to counteract opioids poisoning?

27. Which drug is used to counteract warfarin poisoning?

28. Which drug is used to reduce paracetamol toxicity?

29. What type of immunity is acquired when hepatitis B vaccine is administered?

30. The commonest psychiatric emergencies associated with depressive illness is known as?

31. Failure of a mental patient to recognize that he has a mental illness is referred to as?

32. The term used to describe verbal expression of readiness to cause attack with threats is termed as?

33. Which term is given to irrational fear?

34. A psychiatric emergency where the patient is inert and mute but appears conscious is?

35. A child disorder associated with excessive anxiety when the child is taken away from the individual he is attached to is referred to as?

Hint

36. Children who cannot settle in one place at any given time are likely to be suffering from

Hint

37. What is the drug of choice in management of status epilepticus?

38. The type of epilepsy that does not involve falling down but leads to aggressive behaviour is?

39. Physiological symptoms which occur after stopping excessive alcohol consumption are collectively referred to as

Hint

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