Quizzes & Surveys - Nurses Revision

Foundations Day 6 Quiz

Welcome to your Foundations Day 6 Quiz

September 8, 2025

20 Multiple Choice Questions and 5 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is a key reason for keeping the underwater seal drainage bottle below the level of the patient's chest?

(a) To make it easier to measure the drainage

(b) To prevent the bottle from being knocked over

(d) To increase the amount of suction

None

2. Which suture material is absorbable?

(a) Silk

(b) Nylon

(d) Stainless Steel

None

3. According to the general rules for applying a dressing, which action is correct?

(a) Talk over the wound to reassure the patient

(b) Slide the dressing onto the wound from the side

(d) Touch the part of the dressing that will be in contact with the wound

None

4. When inserting a chest tube to drain air (pneumothorax), it is typically placed in the:

(a) 8th or 9th intercostal space posteriorly

(b) 5th intercostal space at the mid-axillary line

(d) Just below the diaphragm

None

5. The process of removing foreign materials and cellular debris from a wound surface is known as:

(a) Suturing

(b) Bandaging

(d) Debridement

None

6. Constant bubbling in the underwater seal chamber of a chest drain may indicate:

(a) The lung has fully re-expanded

(b) There is a blockage in the tube

(d) There is an air leak in the system or from the patient's lung

None

7. What is the primary purpose of a bandage?

(a) To clean the wound

(b) To debride necrotic tissue

(d) To promote moist wound healing

None

8. A triangular bandage used to support an injured arm is called a:

(a) Sling

(b) Spica

(d) Roller bandage

None

9. In a 1-bottle underwater seal system, a disadvantage is that:

(a) It cannot drain air

(b) It is more likely to become infected (

c) As fluid collects, it becomes harder to drain more fluid

(d) It cannot be connected to suction

None

10. A ligature is best described as:

(a) A type of needle used for suturing

(b) The knot used to tie a suture

(d) A non-absorbable suture used for skin

None

11. A key nursing intervention when changing the bottle of an underwater seal drain is to:

(a) Ask the patient to hold their breath

(b) Raise the drainage system above the chest level

(d) Securely clamp the drain with two clamps for a short time

None

12. Which of the following is an advantage of the non-dressing method for wound care?

(a) It helps with hemostasis

(b) It allows for better observation of the wound

(d) It protects the wound from contamination

None

13. The rise and fall of fluid in the underwater seal tube that corresponds with the patient's respiration is called:

(a) Bubbling

(b) Oscillation or tidaling

(d) Patency

None

14. Which type of bandage is made from Plaster of Paris and used to immobilize fractures?

(a) Triangular bandage

(b) Crepe bandage

(d) Adhesive bandage

None

15. When irrigating a wound, the cleansing agent that is most effective but can also damage healthy tissue is:

(a) Normal Saline

(b) Sterile Water

(d) Potable Water

None

Fill in Questions

None

16. A dressing is a sterile material, while a ...................... is a strip of material used to secure it.

17. A condition where air enters the pleural space, causing a collapsed lung, is called a .............................

18. Sutures that break down and are absorbed by the body over time are called ....................... sutures.

19. In a 3-bottle chest drainage system, the first bottle is the trap or ....................... bottle.

20. A complication of clamping a chest tube when an air leak is present is a ..............................

Name

Time's up

Foundations Day 6 Quiz Read More »

Foundations Day 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Foundations Day 3 Quiz

September 8, 2025

20 Multiple Choice Questions and 5 Fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. The most common site for a lumbar puncture is between which vertebrae?

(a) T12 and L1

(b) L1 and L2

(d) L5 and S1

None

2. The main purpose of a cued tracheostomy tube is to:

(a) Facilitate speech

(b) Make suctioning easier

(d) Reduce the risk of infection

None

3. Which of the following is a major contraindication for performing a gastric lavage?

(a) Ingestion of a mild analgesic overdose

(b) Patient is conscious and alert

(d) Poisoning occurred 30 minutes ago

None

4. When preparing a patient for a lumbar puncture, the nurse should instruct them to:

(a) Maintain a at, supine position

(b) Assume a lateral position with knees drawn to the chest

(d) Lie in a prone position

None

5. Which complication is most common after a lumbar puncture?

(a) Infection

(b) Bleeding

(d) Headache

None

6. The recommended suction pressure for tracheostomy tube suctioning is:

(a) 40-60 mmHg

(b) 80-120 mmHg

(d) Above 200 mmHg

None

7. Gastrostomy feeding is a method of enteral feeding that delivers nutrients directly into the:

(a) Esophagus

(b) Stomach

(d) Jejunum

None

8. The primary aim of providing humidication for a patient with a tracheostomy is to:

(a) Prevent the tube from dislodging

(b) Keep secretions thin and prevent mucus plugs

(d) Make the patient more comfortable

None

9. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for a lumbar puncture?

(a) Severe coagulopathy

(b) Skin infection near the puncture site

(d) Severe spinal deformities

None

10. A bolus feeding via a gastrostomy tube is typically delivered over:

(a) 5-10 minutes

(b) 15-20 minutes

(d) 4 hours

None

11. The process of removing a tracheostomy tube once the patient no longer needs it is called:

(a) Intubation

(b) Decannulation

(d) Debridement

None

12. To conrm that a gastric lavage tube is in the stomach, the nurse should aspirate stomach contents and test them with litmus paper. An acidic result will turn:

(a) Red litmus paper blue

(b) Blue litmus paper red

(d) Red litmus paper green

None

13. A key nursing action after a lumbar puncture is to instruct the patient to:

(a) Ambulate immediately to promote circulation

(b) Remain at in bed for 4-6 hours

(d) Apply a warm compress to the puncture site

None

14. Which of the following is NOT an indication for a tracheostomy?

(a) Prolonged articial ventilation

(b) To bypass an upper airway obstruction

(d) To facilitate removal of secretions

None

15. A fenestrated tracheostomy tube is specially designed to:

(a) Reduce the risk of tracheal stenosis

(b) Be used in paediatric patients

(d) Prevent aspiration of secretions

None

16. One of the main purposes of performing a gastric lavage is to:

(a) Administer medication

(b) Provide long-term nutrition

(d) Diagnose gastrointestinal bleeding

None

17. What is the immediate priority when caring for a patient post-tracheostomy?

(a) Establishing a method of communication

(b) Providing wound care to the stoma

(d) Educating the family

None

18. Aspiration of stomach contents before administering a gastrostomy feed is done to:

(a) Conrm the tube is patent

(b) Ensure the feed is at the correct temperature

(d) Prevent air from entering the stomach

None

19. The obturator of a tracheostomy tube is used:

(a) To clean the inner cannula

(b) To guide the tube during insertion

(d) To secure the tube with ties

None

20. Which of these is a metabolic complication of gastrostomy feeding?

(a) Peritonitis

(b) Tube obstruction

(d) Hyperglycemia

None

Fill in Questions

None

21. Another name for a lumbar puncture is a .........................

22. A surgical opening into the neck and windpipe to allow breathing is called a ......................

23. The flat plate of a tracheostomy tube that rests on the neck is called the ...............

24. The process of cleaning out the contents of the stomach is called .................

25. A normal finding for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) appearance is clear and .........

Name

Time's up

Foundations Day 3 Quiz Read More »

Pediatric Day 5 Quiz

Welcome to your Pediatric Day 5 Quiz

September 8, 2025

1. Which type of fracture is an incomplete break, common in children, where one side of the bone breaks and the other side bends?

a) Comminuted fracture

b) Spiral fracture

c) Greenstick fracture

d) Open/compound fracture

None

2. What is identified as the most common cause of fractures?

a) Pathological conditions weakening the bone

b) Repetitive stress from athletic activities

c) Trauma (falls, accidents, injuries)

d) Violent muscle contractions

None

3. What term describes the restoration of bone ends into their normal anatomical positions, achievable through open or closed methods?

a) Immobilization

b) Reduction

c) Rehabilitation

d) Consolidation

None

4. In fracture healing, what forms during the first stage immediately following tissue destruction?

a) Soft callus

b) Granulation tissue

c) Hematoma

d) Hard callus

None

5. Which fracture complication is a serious condition where swelling within a muscle compartment impairs blood supply?

a) Fat embolism

b) Malunion

c) Compartment syndrome

d) Osteomyelitis

None

6. Osteopenia of Prematurity (OOP) primarily results from inadequate intake of which two essential minerals?

a) Iron and Zinc

b) Calcium and Phosphorus

c) Magnesium and Potassium

d) Sodium and Chloride

None

7. Which vitamin deficiency significantly contributes to Osteopenia of Prematurity due to its crucial role in calcium absorption?

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin C

c) Vitamin D

d) Vitamin K

None

8. Which bacterium is the most common cause of osteomyelitis across most age groups (excluding newborns and sickle cell patients)?

a) Salmonella species

b) Group B Streptococcus

c) Haemophilus influenzae

d) Staphylococcus aureus

None

9. The Lew and Waldvogel classification categorizes osteomyelitis based on which two main factors?

a) Location of infection and type of bone affected

b) Patient age and immune status

c) Duration of infection and mechanism of infection

d) Severity of symptoms and presence of fever

None

10. What is the term for dead bone fragments that can form in chronic osteomyelitis, serving as a focus for persistent infection?

a) Involucrum

b) Sequestra

c) Callus

d) Osteoid

None

11. Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) results primarily from genetic mutations impacting the biosynthesis or processing of which collagen type?

a) Type I Collagen

b) Type II Collagen

c) Type III Collagen

d) Type IV Collagen

None

12. Which clinical feature, caused by thin scleral tissue, is commonly associated with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

a) Yellow sclerae

b) Red sclerae

c) Blue sclerae

d) White opaque sclerae

None

13. What therapy represents the cornerstone of pharmacological fracture prevention for most types of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

a) Growth Hormone

b) Calcium and Vitamin D supplements

c) Bisphosphonate Therapy

d) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

None

14. In first aid for a suspected fracture, what is the priority action before moving the patient?

a) Administering pain medication

b) Cleaning any open wounds

c) Immobilizing the affected body part

d) Attempting to reduce the fracture

None

15. Which factor influencing bone healing is negatively affected by smoking due to nicotine's effect?

a) Hormonal factors

b) Blood supply

c) Nutritional status

d) Patient compliance

None

16. Osteogenesis Imperfecta impacts both bone quality and which other fundamental aspect of bone?

a) Bone shape

b) Bone length

c) Bone mass

d) Bone color

None

17. Which clinical sign of a fracture is characterized by a grating sound or sensation when broken bone ends move against each other?

a) Ecchymosis

b) Deformity

c) Crepitus

d) Edema

None

18. What is the most common pathway for infection to reach the bone and cause osteomyelitis in children?

a) Direct inoculation from surgery

b) Contiguous spread from a skin infection

c) Hematogenous spread via the bloodstream

d) Penetrating trauma

None

19. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) is mentioned as a potential adjunctive treatment mainly for which condition?

a) Acute Osteomyelitis

b) Osteogenesis Imperfecta Type II

c) Chronic Osteomyelitis

d) Osteopenia of Prematurity

None

20. What is the term for the fracture complication where the bone heals in an incorrect or deformed position?

a) Nonunion

b) Avascular necrosis

c) Malunion

d) Osteomyelitis

None

Fill-in Questions

None

21. A fracture where the bone breaks through the skin, exposing it to the external environment, is classified as an __________ fracture.

22. The stage of fracture healing immediately following hematoma formation involves __________ and cellular proliferation.

23. In the A, B, C, D assessment for first aid fracture management, 'D' signifies that any __________ should be immobilized.

24. Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is commonly referred to as __________ bone disease due to the characteristic bone fragility.

Hint

25. During the callus formation stage of fracture healing, specialized cells called __________ are responsible for synthesizing and depositing new spongy bone matrix.

Name

Time's up

Pediatric Day 5 Quiz Read More »

Pediatrics Day 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Pediatrics Day 3 Quiz

September 8, 2025

1. Pulmonary Hemorrhage (PH) in children is characterized by bleeding into which specific structures?

a) Bronchioles and trachea

b) Pleural space and interstitium

c) Alveoli and airways of the lungs

d) Pulmonary arteries and veins

None

2. The histological definition of Pulmonary Hemorrhage involves the presence of what within the alveolar spaces or interstitium?

a) White blood cells (WBCs)

b) Red blood cells (RBCs)

c) Excessive mucus

d) Bacterial colonies

None

3. Which of the following is an infectious cause of Pulmonary Hemorrhage?

a) Goodpasture's syndrome

b) Chest trauma

c) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

d) Aspirin use

None

4. In the management of Pulmonary Hemorrhage, what is the primary aim of administering Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs)?

a) To reduce lung inflammation

b) To improve surfactant function

c) To correct hypovolemia and anemia

d) To treat underlying infections

None

5. Which pharmacological agent, discovered from snake venom, has a thromboplastin-like effect used in some PH treatments?

a) Activated Recombinant Factor VIIa (rFVIIa)

b) Low-molecular-weight Heparin

c) Hemocoagulase

d) Endotracheal Epinephrine

None

6. Apnea in full-term babies is defined as a sudden cessation of breathing lasting for more than how many seconds?

a) 5 seconds

b) 10 seconds

c) 15 seconds

d) 20 seconds

None

7. Which type of apnea occurs due to a failure of the brain to send signals to the breathing muscles?

a) Obstructive Apnea

b) Mixed Apnea

c) Central Apnea

d) Apnea of Prematurity

None

8. What is the recommended initial non-invasive management step for mild, intermittent apneic episodes in an infant?

a) Immediate intubation

b) Administration of caffeine

c) Tactile stimulation

d) Starting CPAP

None

9. Methylxanthines like caffeine and theophylline work to manage apnea primarily by blocking which receptors?

a) Beta-2 receptors

b) Acetylcholine receptors

c) Adenosine receptors

d) Dopamine receptors

None

10. Pneumonia is fundamentally defined as an inflammation of which part of the lung?

a) Pleural lining

b) Bronchial tubes

c) Lung parenchyma

d) Pulmonary blood vessels

None

11. Which bacterium is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

c) Legionella spp.

d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

None

12. Pneumonia acquired more than 48 hours after hospital admission is classified as:

a) Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)

b) Ventilator-Acquired Pneumonia (VAP)

c) Aspiration Pneumonia

d) Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia (HAP)

None

13. Fast breathing (tachypnea) indicative of possible pneumonia in an infant aged 2-12 months is defined as a respiratory rate greater than:

a) 30 breaths/minute

b) 40 breaths/minute

c) 50 breaths/minute

d) 60 breaths/minute

None

14. What is the first-line antibiotic recommended for children with no serious pneumonia?

a) Gentamicin

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Amoxicillin

d) Cloxacillin

None

15. Atopy, a risk factor for asthma, is characterized by a genetic tendency towards:

a) Increased mucus production

b) Hypersensitivity reactions and IgE production

c) Bronchial muscle hypertrophy

d) Frequent respiratory infections

None

16. A whistling sound heard during breathing, usually on expiration, is known as:

a) Crackles (Crepitations)

b) Stridor

c) Wheezing

d) Grunting

None

17. Spirometry in an asthma patient typically shows a reduction in which measurement?

a) Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

b) Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

c) Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1)

d) Residual Volume (RV)

None

18. According to the Step Ladder Management approach, what is the typical Step 1 treatment for occasional asthma symptoms?

a) Regular inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)

b) Addition of a Long-acting β2-agonist (LABA)

c) Occasional use of inhaled short-acting β2-adrenoceptor agonist (SABA)

d) Oral steroids

None

19. In a child with Pulmonary Hemorrhage, what is the rationale for positioning the child in a semi-Fowler's or upright position?

a) To increase blood pressure

b) To promote optimal lung expansion and airway clearance

c) To facilitate administration of intravenous fluids

d) To decrease heart rate

None

20. What is a key evaluation criterion for the nursing diagnosis "Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion" related to Pulmonary Hemorrhage?

a) Absence of cough

b) Normal respiratory rate

c) Capillary refill time less than 2 seconds

d) Oxygen saturation above 92%

None

Fill-in Questions

None

21. A __________ is a procedure where a thin, flexible tube is inserted into the airways to visualize the lungs directly and obtain samples.

22. Apnea occurring in preterm infants is specifically referred to as __________.

23. Pulmonary Haemorrhage can be characterized by a productive cough with blood, a symptom known as __________.

24. Blood accumulating in the alveoli during Pulmonary Hemorrhage impairs gas exchange, leading to low blood oxygen levels, termed __________.

25. How was it?

Doable

Difficulty

None

Name

Time's up

Pediatrics Day 3 Quiz Read More »

Medicine Day 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Medicine Day 3 Quiz

September 8, 2025

1. Which of the following is a primary function of the endocrine system?

a) Transporting oxygen throughout the body

b) Regulating body functions through hormones

c) Filtering waste products from the blood

d) Protecting the body from pathogens

None

2. How do endocrine glands differ from exocrine glands?

a) Endocrine glands have ducts.

b) Exocrine glands release hormones into the bloodstream.

c) Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream.

d) Exocrine glands produce hormones.

None

3. Which gland is often referred to as the "master gland" of the endocrine system?

a) Thyroid gland

b) Adrenal gland

c) Pituitary gland

d) Pancreas

None

4. What structure controls the pituitary gland?

a) Pineal gland

b) Thyroid gland

c) Hypothalamus

d) Parathyroid gland

None

5. Which hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland?

a) Growth hormone (GH)

b) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

c) Oxytocin

d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

None

6. What is the primary function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

a) Stimulating uterine contractions

b) Lowering blood calcium levels

c) Helping the kidneys retain water

d) Regulating metabolism

None

7. What is the function of calcitonin?

a) Increase the calcium level in the blood

b) Lower blood calcium levels

c) Regulate metabolism

d) Increase blood glucose levels

None

8.Which hormone is released by the alpha cells of the pancreas?

a) Insulin

b) Glucagon

c) Somatostatin

d) Cortisol

None

9. What is the function of insulin?

a) Increase blood glucose levels

b) Lower blood glucose levels

c) Stimulate the adrenal cortex

d) Regulate calcium levels

None

10. What hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla?

a) Mineralocorticoids

b) Glucocorticoids

c) Catecholamines

d) Androgens

None

11. Which of the following is a glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex?

a) Aldosterone

b) Cortisol

c) Epinephrine

d) Insulin

None

12. What is the function of luteinizing hormone (LH) in females?

a) Stimulating sperm production

b) Triggering ovulation and progesterone production

c) Promoting milk production

d) Regulating metabolism

None

13. What is the definition of Gigantism?

a) It is a condition characterized by short stature.

b) It occurs when GH overproduction happens in adulthood.

c) It occurs when there is an overproduction of GH in children or adolescents before the closure of the growth plates in bones.

d) It results from hypersecretion of Posterior Pituitary hormones especially the growth hormones

None

14. Acromegaly is caused by the overproduction of which hormone?

a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

b) Growth hormone (GH)

c) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

d) Insulin

None

15. Acromegaly is caused by the overproduction of which hormone?

a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

b) Growth hormone (GH)

c) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

d) Insulin

None

16. Which of the following is a typical clinical manifestation of Acromegaly?

a) Abnormally increased height

b) Enlarged hands and feet

c) Weight Loss

d) Decreased sweating

None

17. What is the primary treatment for acromegaly?

a) Insulin injections

b) Surgical removal of the pituitary adenoma

c) Thyroid hormone replacement therapy

d) Dietary modifications

None

18. Which of the following biochemical tests is the most sensitive and reliable test for detecting acromegaly or gigantism?

a) GH levels

b) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

c) IGF-1 (Insulin-like Growth Factor-1)

d) Electrocardiography (ECG)

None

19. What is the medical definition of dwarfism?

a) An adult height of 5 feet 10 inches or shorter

b) An adult height of 4 feet 10 inches or shorter

c) An adult height of 6 feet 10 inches or shorter

d) An adult height of 3 feet 10 inches or shorter

None

20. Which of the following is the most common cause of Addison's disease?

a) Infections

b) Autoimmune disease

c) Cancer

d) Medications

None

21. What is the most common sign of Addison's Disease?

a) Weight gain

b) Fatigue and weakness

c) High blood pressure

d) Increased appetite

None

22. What hormones are replaced in the treatment of Addison's disease?

a) Insulin and glucagon

b) Estrogen and progesterone

c) Cortisol and aldosterone

d) Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)

None

23. Hyperpigmentation is a characteristic sign of Addison’s disease because of increased production of which hormone?

a) Aldosterone

b) Glucagon

c) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

d) Insulin

None

24. The ____________ gland, often termed the "master gland," controls other endocrine glands through hormone production.

25. The posterior pituitary produces ___________, which stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection.

oxytocin

oxytocin hormone

None

Name

Time's up

Medicine Day 3 Quiz Read More »

Mental Health Day 1

Welcome to your Mental Health Day 1

September 8, 2025

1. Which statement best defines mental health?

a) Absence of disease

b) A state of constant happiness

c) A balance between the individual and their surroundings, along with harmony with oneself and others

d) Complete independence from others

None

2. What is psychiatry?

a) The study of the mind and its functions

b) A branch of medicine dealing with the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of mental disorders

c) A social science focused on human behavior

d) A form of therapy

None

3. A mentally healthy person typically exhibits:

a) Complete avoidance of stress

b) An inability to adapt to new situations

c) The ability to make adjustments and adapt to various situations

d) Dependence on others for decision-making

None

Name

Time's up

Mental Health Day 1 Read More »

Reproductive Day 3 and 4 Quiz

Welcome to your Reproductive Day 3 and 4 Quiz

September 8, 2025

1. Which of the following is NOT considered a type of Reproductive Tract Infection (RTI)?

a) Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI)

b) Endogenous Infection

c) Iatrogenic Infection

d) Respiratory Infection

None

2. Which of the following STIs is caused by a bacterium and is typically curable with antibiotics?

a) Genital Herpes

b) Gonorrhea

c) HIV/AIDS

d) Genital Warts

None

3. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of preventing STIs?

a) Vaccination against HPV

b) Consistent use of condoms

c) Abstinence from sexual activity

d) Limiting alcohol consumption

None

4. Vertical transmission of STIs refers to:

a) Transmission through shared needles

b) Transmission from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or lactation

c) Transmission through oral sex

d) Transmission between sexual partners

None

5. A woman presents with a yellowish-white vaginal discharge, dysuria, and lower abdominal pain. Which STI is MOST likely?

a) Syphilis

b) Gonorrhea

c) Genital Herpes

d) Trichomoniasis

None

6. Which of the following complications is MOST closely associated with untreated gonorrhea in women?

a) Genital Warts

b) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

c) Genital Herpes

d) Bacterial Vaginosis

None

7. Which of the following findings is MOST characteristic of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

a) Painful genital ulcers

b) Frothy, yellow-green discharge

c) Fishy odor, especially after intercourse

d) Painful urination

None

8. A patient is diagnosed with genital warts. Which virus is the causative agent?

a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

b) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

d) Treponema pallidum

None

9. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED during pregnancy for the treatment of genital warts?

a) Acyclovir cream

b) Podophyllin

c) Cauterization

d) Warm saline bath

None

10. What is the typical presentation of the primary stage of syphilis?

a) Systemic rash and flu-like symptoms

b) Painless sore (chancre) at the site of infection

c) Gummas (swelling) on the skin and bones

d) Neurological and cardiovascular complications

None

11. Which of the following is a potential complication of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

a) Genital warts

b) Infertility

c) Bacterial vaginosis

d) Genital herpes

None

12. A patient is diagnosed with Chancroid. Which bacteria causes Chancroid?

a) Treponema pallidum

b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

c) Chlamydia trachomatis

d) Haemophilus ducreyi

None

13. The syndromic approach to STI management is primarily based on:

a) Laboratory confirmation of specific pathogens.

b) The patient's clinical signs and symptoms.

c) Detailed patient history and risk factors alone.

d) Comprehensive laboratory and clinical assessments.

None

14. Which of the following is an advantage of using the syndromic approach to STI management?

a) It ensures accurate identification of all causative pathogens.

b) It provides a rapid diagnosis and treatment, especially where lab resources are limited.

c) It eliminates the risk of antibiotic resistance.

d) It is highly effective for treating asymptomatic individuals.

None

15. A key disadvantage of the syndromic approach is:

a) It is too expensive for resource-limited settings.

b) It always requires highly trained specialists to implement.

c) It may lead to overuse/wastage of medications.

d) It is difficult for primary healthcare workers to learn.

None

16. If a pregnant woman presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, which antibiotic should be used to treat Chlamydia instead of Doxycycline?

a) Metronidazole

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Erythromycin

d) Acyclovir

None

17. A woman presents with thick, lumpy vaginal discharge and intense itching. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

a) Bacterial Vaginosis

b) Trichomoniasis

c) Candida Albicans Vaginitis

d) Gonococcal Cervicitis

None

18. What is the recommended first-line treatment for multiple, painful blisters or vesicles in the genital area, according to the syndromic approach in Uganda?

a) Ciprofloxacin and Benzathine penicillin

b) Aciclovir

c) Metronidazole and Doxycycline

d) Erythromycin

None

19. When managing Inguinal Buboes Syndrome, which of the following actions should be AVOIDED?

a) Aspiration of fluctuant swellings with a large bore needle.

b) Incising fluctuant swellings.

c) Administering Doxycycline.

d) Treating the patient's partner.

None

20. Which of the following is a key element of comprehensive STI case management, in addition to antimicrobial therapy?

a) Providing free housing to patients

b) Offering partner notification and treatment

c) Performing routine surgery

d) Prescribing vitamins and supplements

None

21. What should be done when managing abnormal vaginal discharge, in addition to treating vaginal infections?

a) Offer HIV VCT services if necessary

b) Schedule a return visit if necessary

c) Treat vaginal infection

d) All the above

None

22. How were the objectives?

Doable

Hard

None

Name

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Reproductive Day 3 and 4 Quiz Read More »

Midwifery iii Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 2

September 8, 2025

Time Allowed: 20 mins

1. What is the primary goal of communication in palliative care?

a. To provide medical advice

b. To reduce uncertainties and clarify issues

c. To entertain patients

d. To impose personal values

None

2. Which type of communication entails using spoken words, such as talking face-to-face or on a telephone?

a. Verbal communication

b. Non-verbal communication

c. Closed-ended communication

d. Open-ended communication

None

3. Which major skill in communication involves asking questions to help patients explore their problems more fully?

a. Listening

b. Checking understanding

c. Asking questions

d. Answering questions

None

4. What is the primary purpose of checking understanding during a conversation?

a. To test the patient's knowledge

b. To confirm the caregiver's understanding

c. To assess the patient's memory

d. To ensure effective communication

None

5. What type of questions invite a person to talk and explain, often beginning with words like "What" or "How"?

a. Closed-ended questions

b. Open-ended questions

c. Reflective questions

d. Tactful questions

None

6. What is the primary goal of communication in pediatric palliative care?

a. To entertain children

b. To reduce pain in children

c. To establish meaningful relationships with children

d. To disclose diagnoses and ensure treatment adherence

None

7. When answering difficult questions in pediatric palliative care, which technique involves warning the child before sharing potentially challenging information?

a. WPC Chunk Technique

b. Reflective Technique

c. Questioning Technique

d. Tactful Technique

None

8. In pediatric palliative care, what is the significance of age-appropriate communication?

a. It promotes adherence to treatment.

b. It reduces communication barriers.

c. It aligns with the child's developmental stage.

d. It enhances cultural respect.

None

9. What is the primary purpose of using open-ended questions in communication?

a. To gather factual information

b. To encourage patients to express their thoughts and feelings

c. To test the patient's knowledge

d. To limit the patient's responses

None

10. What factor may hinder communication in palliative care by causing patients to choose not to disclose important information?

a. Transportation barriers

b. Resource constraints

c. Stigma and misconceptions

d. Impairments

None

11. To check your understanding of what someone has said, you can:

A. Ask clarifying questions.

B. Summarize what they have said in your own words.

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above.

None

12. The following are indicators of paying attention during communication Except;

A. Relax

B. Lean forward

C. Sit near

D. Ask questions

None

13. Which technique involves using body language to show that you are paying attention while communicating with patients?

a. Reflecting

b. Summarizing

c. Paraphrasing

d. ROLES technique

None

14. Why is maintaining confidentiality important when communicating in palliative care?

a. To gossip about patients' conditions

b. To build trust with patients and their families

c. To share patients' information with the public

d. To avoid answering patients' questions

None

15. What is a potential consequence of poor communication in palliative care?

a. Increased trust between patients and healthcare professionals

b. Enhanced patient care and satisfaction

c. Mistrust and a source of staff stress

d. Improved planning for the future

None

16. Facility outreach programs bring the services nearer to the people, so patients do not have to walk long distances and can be seen within their villages.

True

False

None

17. Home based palliative care model involves the delivery of a comprehensive package of care to the patient and the family in the community.

True

False

None

18. Roadside clinics/stopovers aren't a convenient way for patients to access palliative care without having to travel long distances.

True

False

None

19. Hospice care is a type of palliative care that is provided to patients who are terminally ill.

True

False

None

20. Communication is considered complete only when there is _______?

Name

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Midwifery iii Week 1 Exam Read More »

Midwifery iii Day 3 and 4 Quiz

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 1

Attempt all Questions

Time Allowed: 20 min

September 8, 2025

1. What is the primary goal of palliative care?

A. Cure the disease

B. Improve the quality of life

C. Provide emotional support

D. Reduce healthcare costs

None

2. When does palliative care typically start?

A. Only in the late stages of the illness

B. At the time of diagnosis

C. After all curative treatments have failed

D. Only during the patient's bereavement

None

3. What is the primary focus of hospice care?

A. Providing curative treatments

B. Enhancing the remaining days of life

C. Treating pain and symptoms

D. Offering emotional support only

None

4. Which of the following diseases is NOT a condition that may require palliative care?

A. Cancer

B. HIV/AIDS

C. Kidney failure

D. Dementia

None

5. Which component of holistic care emphasizes the assessment and management of pain and physical symptoms?

A. Psychological care

B. Spiritual care

C. Physical care

D. Social care

None

6. Which of the following is NOT an aim of palliative care?

A. Fasten death of a patient.

B. Provide pain and symptom relief.

C. Affirms life and regards dying as normal

D. Offers individual care to patients and care takers.

None

7. What are the two essential components of palliative care?

a) Pain and symptom control

b) Surgical procedures and medications

c) Inpatient care and outpatient care

d) Physical therapy and dietary management

None

8. Which principle of palliative care emphasizes maintaining hope with realistic goals?

a) Ethical consideration

b) Patient-centered care

c) Continuum of treatment

d) Holistic care approach

None

9. What does the "community day care" model of palliative care involve?

a) Providing care exclusively in hospitals

b) Offering care only to patients in urban areas

c) Delivering care within the patient's community

d) Focusing on outpatient care in health centers

None

10. In which model of palliative care is care provided at identified places along the route to an outreach?

a. Health facilities based

b. Health facility Out-reach programs

c. Roadside clinics/stopovers

d. Facility day care

None

11. Palliative care is NOT end of life care.

True

False

None

12. Dame Cicely Saunders is known for founding the "Hospice Movement" in 1918

True

False

None

13. Hospice care is just a building; it is considered a philosophy of care emphasizing comprehensive support for patients.

True

False

None

14. The interdisciplinary team in palliative care may include doctors, nurses, social workers, religious leaders, teachers, and community health providers, among others.

True

False

None

15. Roadside clinics and stopovers are models of palliative care designed to provide care to patients who live far away from healthcare facilities.

True

False

None

16. Geographic accessibility, resource availability, and patient preference are not factors that influence the choice of a palliative care model in Uganda.

True

False

None

17. Stigma and misconceptions surrounding palliative care can discourage patients and families from seeking or accepting palliative care services, even though it is not synonymous with end of life care.

True

False

None

18. Community day care models cannot depend on community resources and volunteers to function effectively.

True

False

None

19. Holistic care in palliative care includes addressing physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs.

True

False

None

20. Bereavement support is an important component of palliative care and helps family members cope with grief and loss.

True

False

None

Name

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Gynaecology Day 6 Quiz

Welcome to your Gynaecology Day 6 Quiz

20 MCQ's and 5 fil ins

September 8, 2025

1. Which of the following is the most common type of ovarian cyst that develops as part of the menstrual cycle?

A. Dermoid cyst

B. Follicular cyst

C. Endometrioma

D. Cystadenoma

None

2. What is the primary purpose of administering hormonal birth control in the management of ovarian cysts?

A. To increase estrogen levels

B. To shrink endometriomas

C. To regulate the menstrual cycle

D. To prevent ovarian cancer

None

3. Which of the following symptoms most commonly indicates a ruptured ovarian cyst?

A. Breast tenderness

B. Severe abdominal pain

C. Bloating

D. Increased urinary frequency

None

4. Which type of ovarian cyst is most likely to contain tissue such as hair, skin, or teeth?

A. Corpus luteum cyst

B. Dermoid cyst

C. Follicular cyst

D. Endometrioma

None

5. In which case would surgery most likely be recommended for an ovarian cyst?

A. A small, asymptomatic follicular cyst

B. A persistent, painful endometrioma

C. A corpus luteum cyst in a young woman

D. A simple cyst found during a routine ultrasound

None

6. Which type of ovarian cyst is most commonly associated with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

A. Follicular cyst

B. Corpus luteum cyst

C. Cystadenoma

D. Multiple small follicles

None

7. Which of the following is the best indicator of a complex ovarian cyst that requires further investigation?

A. Presence of abdominal bloating

B. Irregular menstrual cycles

C. Cyst with both solid and fluid components on ultrasound

D. Severe pain during menstruation

None

8. Which medication is typically used to manage pain associated with ovarian cysts?

A. Ibuprofen

B. Prednisone

C. Acetaminophen

D. Methotrexate

None

9. Which complication may arise from a large, untreated ovarian cyst?

A. Weight gain

B. Ovarian torsion

C. Skin rash

D. Hair loss

None

10. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with anterior vaginal wall prolapse?

A. Enterocele

B. Cystocele

C. Urethrocele

D. Rectocele

None

11. Which of the following describes the most severe form of uterine prolapse?

A. Stage 1

B. Stage 2

C. Stage 3

D. Stage 4

None

12. In managing a cystocele, which conservative treatment option is likely to be effective in mild cases?

A. Colpocleisis

B. Sacrospinous fixation

C. Pessary

D. Sacrohysteropexy

None

13. Which symptom is most commonly associated with uterine prolapse?

A. Frequent diarrhea

B. Low back pain

C. Vaginal itching

D. Epigastric pain

None

14. Which diagnostic test provides detailed imaging of pelvic structures for assessing pelvic organ prolapse severity?

A. Colonoscopy

B. Urinalysis

C. MRI

D. CBC

None

15. Which condition involves the rectum protruding through the anus and is often mistaken for hemorrhoids?

A. Rectocele

B. Rectal prolapse

C. Urethrocele

D. Cystocele

None

16. Which of the following symptoms is more specific to a cystocele than other types of prolapse?

A. Pelvic pressure

B. Urinary incontinence

C. Vaginal discharge

D. Difficulty with bowel movements

None

17. A 60-year-old woman presents with a sensation of a mass protruding from her rectum during bowel movements, which she can manually push back in. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial conservative treatment for rectal prolapse?

A. Biofeedback therapy

B. Rectopexy

C. Laparoscopic surgery

D. Anal sphincter repair

None

18. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with rectal prolapse?

A. Anal discomfort

B. Constipation

C. Rectal bleeding

D. Abdominal pain

None

19. In which type of rectal prolapse does the rectal wall remain inside the anus but folds inward, commonly occurring in children?

A. Complete rectal prolapse

B. Internal intussusception

C. Partial rectal prolapse

D. Mucosal prolapse

None

20. A patient with rectal prolapse is most likely to benefit from which dietary modification to prevent worsening of symptoms?

A. Low-fiber diet

B. High-protein diet

C. High-fiber diet

D. Low-fat diet

None

Fill-in Questions

None

21. An ovarian cyst that occurs as a result of the accumulation of fluid in a follicle that has failed to release an egg is known as a __________ cyst.

22. The condition where an ovarian cyst causes the ovary to twist around its supporting tissues, potentially cutting off blood supply, is called ovarian __________.

23. Dermoid cysts are unique among ovarian cysts because they contain tissue such as skin, hair, or teeth, originating from __________ cells.

24. In patients with rectal prolapse, __________ is a common co-existing symptom that can both cause and worsen the prolapse.

25. Rectal prolapse that includes all layers of the rectal wall protruding through the anus is referred to as __________ prolapse.

Name

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