Quizzes & Surveys - Page 4 of 14

Abnormal Midwifery Day 9 Quiz

Welcome to your RESEARCH WEEK ONE TEST Which has 30 MCQ'S and 10 FILL-IN's

RESEARCH METHODOLODY

PAPER CODE: DNE/DME 121

TIME ALLOWED : 1:30 hrs

Attempt All Numbers.

What does the term "phenomena" refer to in the context of research?

a. Logical explanations for observed events

b. Events or situations observed to exist but not easily explained

c. The scientific investigation of data

d. Personal opinions and attitudes

None

Which term implies that research follows laid-out procedures and is developed in a coherent manner?

a. Scientific investigation

b. Objective

c. Systematic

d. Phenomenology

None

What does "Objective" mean in the context of research?

a. Personal opinions and attitudes influencing research findings

b. Research findings are reported as they are, without interpretation

c. The use of the scientific method in research

d. Gathering data without a specific objective

None

What is the primary purpose of an abstract in a research article?

a. To provide detailed research findings

b. To present the methodology used in the study

c. To inform readers of key findings in a concise manner

d. To list all the references used in the research

None

What term refers to the process of selecting a representative part of a population for research purposes?

a. Sampling

b. Cohort

c. Data collection

d. Hypothesis testing

None

What does the term "bias" mean in research?

a. The selection of subjects from a population using random procedures

b. Undesired actions or effects of a drug or treatment

c. When a point of view prevents impartial judgment on research-related issues

d. The extent to which an instrument measures what it intends to measure

None

What is the purpose of a pilot study in research?

a. To present preliminary research findings

b. To test the usefulness of research instruments

c. To conduct a full-scale research study

d. To refine the methodology and test research elements for feasibility

None

What characteristic of research involves conducting a study with a well-defined and focused purpose?

a. Specific/purposiveness

b. Empirical

c. Testability

d. Objectivity

None

Which characteristic of research refers to its ability to be repeated in similar circumstances to support the results obtained?

a. Testability

b. Objectivity

c. Precision

d. Replicability

None

Which type of research aims to find solutions to practical problems, such as improving agricultural crop production or curing specific diseases?

a. Basic research

b. Experimental research

c. Descriptive research

d. Applied research

None

What is the primary motivation behind basic research?

a. To expand man's knowledge

b. To create or invent something new

c. To find commercial value in discoveries

d. To answer practical questions

None

Which type of research seeks to establish relationships or correlations between two or more variables without necessarily determining causality?

a. Experimental research

b. Correlational research

c. Narrative research

d. Ethnographic research

None

What type of research is concerned with investigating phenomena that are difficult or impossible to quantify mathematically, such as beliefs, meanings, attributes, and symbols?

a. Descriptive research

b. Quantitative research

c. Experimental research

d. Qualitative research

None

What type of research is more concerned with questions about "How much," "How many," "How often," and "To what extent"?

a. Qualitative research

b. Descriptive research

c. Experimental research

d. Quantitative research

None

Why is research considered a science?

a. Because it is based on personal opinions and bias

b. Due to its lack of systematic approach

c. Because it follows a systematic and structured approach, similar to the scientific method

d. Because it relies solely on subjective data

None

What is the role of an independent variable (IV) in research?

a. It is the outcome or response that is measured or observed.

b. It is expected to change as a result of variations in the dependent variable.

c. It is manipulated or controlled to determine its effect on the dependent variable.

d. It represents confounding variables in the study.

None

What is the purpose of confounding variables(Extraneous & Intervening) in research?

a. To manipulate the independent variable

b. To control extraneous variables

c. To influence the dependent variable

d. To confuse the relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable

None

What is a research problem?

a. A statement about the research topic

b. An area of concern or a gap in knowledge

c. A statement of the research hypothesis

d. A summary of the research findings

None

What are the qualities of a good research problem according to the FINER acronym?

a. Feasible, Incomplete, New, Ethical, Relevant

b. Factual, Interesting, Novel, Ethical, Relevant

c. Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical, Relevant

d. Flexible, Investigative, Navigational, Experimental, Relevant

None

What is the purpose of the "A" (Attainable) in SMART research objectives?

a. To emphasize the importance of the research

b. To make the objective more interesting

c. To ensure that the objective is achievable with available resources

d. To specify a timeframe for the objective

None

Which type of research objective provides a big-picture view of what the research intends to accomplish?

a. Specific objectives

b. General objectives

c. Measurable objectives

d. Time-bound objectives

None

In a research proposal, what is the purpose of the "Declaration" page?

a. To list the acronyms used in the proposal

b. To provide a table of contents for the proposal

c. To declare the approval of the research by the principal investigator

d. To declare that the researcher acknowledges the work as their own

None

In a research proposal, which section typically includes pages numbered in Roman numerals?

a. Preliminary Pages

b. Main Body

c. References

d. Appendices

None

The main body of a research proposal contains the following EXCEPT;

a. Chapter Two

b. Chapter One

c. Chapter Four

d. Chapter Three

None

What is the purpose of specific objectives in research?

a. To outline the research methodology

b. To specify the research hypothesis

c. To provide a detailed plan for data analysis

d. To break down the general objective into smaller, manageable parts

None

What type of variable is socioeconomic status in the study "Influence of socioeconomic status on housing conditions"?

a. Independent Variable (IV)

b. Dependent Variable (DV)

c. Intervening Variable

d. Extraneous Variable (EV)

None

What is the dependent variable (DV) in a research study?

a. It is the factor or condition that researchers manipulate.

b. It is the outcome or response that is measured or observed.

c. It represents potential confounding variables.

d. It is a variable used for moderating the relationship between IV and DV.

None

What type of research is more concerned with questions about "How much," "How many," "How often," and "To what extent"?

a. Qualitative research

b. Descriptive research

c. Experimental research

d. Quantitative research

None

What does descriptive research primarily focus on?

a. Predicting future outcomes

b. Experimenting with variables

c. Providing an accurate portrayal of characteristics

d. Developing innovative technologies

None

Phew, you are on number 30, breath-in, Out, Huh

I need a free mark

No, I don't need a free mark

None

Phenomenology falls under the category of ____________ research.

The --------- effect is a phenomenon (In Phenomenology research) where a person experiences real improvements in their condition after receiving a treatment that has no therapeutic effect.

A hypothesis is a specific and testable statement made for a particular experiment, while a ____________ is a comprehensive explanation of natural phenomena supported by substantial evidence.

____________ refers to an individual or source of information who provides valuable data or knowledge to the researcher.

Research is based on observation and measurement of phenomena as directly experienced or observed by the researcher or based on real life experiences, makes research ____________.

____________ research aims to describe an experience as it was actually lived by the person, focusing on the individual's perspective.

The type of data is collected in quantitative research is ----------- data?

A research proposal is written in the __________ tense because it describes what the researcher intends to undertake in the future.

The first preliminary page of a research proposal is a ---------- page.

The "Approval" page in a research proposal is signed by both the supervisor and the __________.

Name

Time's up

Abnormal Midwifery Day 9 Quiz Read More »

Abnormal Midwifery Day 8 Quiz

Welcome to your Research Quiz Day 3 and Day 4

12 Questions.

10 MCQ's

2 Fill Ins

Which of the following is a purpose of research objectives?

a) To gather as much data as possible

b) To avoid wasting resources

c) To keep the study broad and vague

d) To confuse the researcher

None

Which characteristic is NOT part of a good research objective?

a) Specificity

b) Measurability

c) Complexity

d) Time-bound

None

What is the purpose of specific objectives in research?

a) To provide a broad overview of the study

b) To break down the general objective into manageable parts

c) To confuse the researcher

d) To collect as much data as possible

None

Which of the following is NOT an action verb commonly used in research objectives?

a) To compare

b) To appreciate

c) To describe

d) To establish

None

What does the acronym SMART stand for in the context of research objectives?

a) Simple, Measurable, Achievable, Rated, Timely

b) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-Bound

c) Specific, Meaningful, Appropriate, Realistic, Timely

d) Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Targeted

None

Which type of objective provides a big-picture view of what the research intends to accomplish?

a) Specific objectives

b) General objectives

c) Non-action objectives

d) Complex objectives

None

What is the main advantage of having clear research objectives?

a) They make the study more complicated

b) They confuse the researcher

c) They help in staying focused on the research goal

d) They lead to unnecessary data collection

None

Which term is NOT associated with a well-formulated research objective?

a) Aim

b) Purpose

c) Hypothesis

d) Goal

None

What is the primary purpose of a research proposal?

a) To summarize existing research

b) To describe completed research

c) To outline future research intentions

d) To provide a literature review

None

What is the main purpose of studying research as an educational requirement?

a) To discourage students from pursuing research

b) To provide a summary of research findings

c) To prepare students for the research process

d) To avoid the need for ethical considerations

None

A research proposal outlines what the researcher intends to investigate, why it's important, and how the research will be done. It is typically written in the _______ tense.

What are the preliminary pages of a research proposal typically numbered in?

Name

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Abnormal Midwifery Day 8 Quiz Read More »

Pharmacology Day 1

Welcome to your Pharmacology Day 1

October 4, 2025

20 Numbers, 15 objectives and 5 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Pharmacokinetics involves the following processes except:

A). Absorption

B). Metabolism

C). Excretion

D). Side effects

None

2. Most of the drugs taken orally are metabolized in:

A). Liver

B). Kidney

C). Lungs

D). Intestines

None

3. The following drugs belong to the same class except:

A). Morphine

B). Codeine

C). Pethidine

D). Amoxicillin

None

4. The abbreviation TDS means:

A). Four times daily

B). Three times daily

C). Two times daily

D). Once daily

None

5. Which one of the following names is a brand name?

A). Gentamicin

B). Quinine

C). Amoxil

D). Diclofenac

None

6. Which one of the following is not a common source of drugs used in Uganda?

A). Plants

B). Animals

C). Minerals

D). Urine

None

7. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of fertility drugs?

A) Anovulation

B) Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

C) Ovarian cysts

D) Unexplained infertility

None

8. Which hormone triggers the release of the mature egg from the follicle during ovulation?

A) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

B) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

C) Progesterone

D) Oxytocin

None

9. Which drug is used in the active management of the third stage of labor to reduce the risk of postpartum hemorrhage?

A) Misoprostol

B) Syntometrine

C) Clomifene

D) Bromocriptine

None

10. Which of the following is a common side effect of fertility medications?

A) Hypertension

B) Fluid retention

C) Hair loss

D) Hyperthyroidism

None

11. Which drug is used as a first-line treatment for hyperprolactinemia?

A) Clomifene

B) Bromocriptine

C) Oxytocin

D) Misoprostol

None

12. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the corpus luteum to produce progesterone?

A) Estrogen

B) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

C) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

D) Oxytocin

None

13. A 30-year-old female diagnosed with anovulatory infertility is prescribed clomiphene citrate 50 mg daily for 5 days, starting on day 5 of her menstrual cycle. After three cycles, there is no evidence of ovulation. What is the most appropriate next step in her treatment?

A. Discontinue clomiphene and switch to letrozole

B. Increase the dose of clomiphene to 100 mg daily

C. Start hCG injections

D. Initiate treatment with GnRH agonists

None

14. A 29-year-old post term woman is administered oxytocin. Which of the following is a primary indication for the use of oxytocin?

A. To stimulate ovarian follicle development

B. To increase milk production in lactating mothers

C. To induce or augment uterine contractions during labor

D. To trigger final oocyte maturation before ovulation

None

15. Which of the following hormones is classified as a gonadotropin?

A) Prolactin

B) Oxytocin

C) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

D) Estradiol

None

Fill In Questions

None

16. A drug that treats brachial asthma but can also be used to manage threatening abortions is __________.

17. The term given to undesirable and unintended effects that occur at normal drug doses is __________.

18. Drugs that inhibit uterine frequency and strength of contractions are called __________.

19. OD in prescription means________?

20. FSH stimulates the production of _____________ which is responsible for secondary sexual characteristics in females.

Name

Time's up

Pharmacology Day 1 Read More »

Surgical Nursing Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Surgical Nursing Week 1 Exam

October 4, 2025

40 Numbers, 30 objectives and 10 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A) Pseudomonas pyocyanea

B) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

None

2. What is the characteristic sign of viral conjunctivitis caused by adenovirus?

A) Mucopurulent discharge

B) Chemosis and follicles

C) Thick, yellow discharge

D) Pseudomembrane formation

None

3. Which of the following is a major complication of untreated trachoma?

A. Diabetic retinopathy

B. Blindness

C. Retinal detachment

D. Glaucoma

None

4. What is a common preventative measure to reduce the risk of developing a stye?

A) Regular application of antibiotic eye drops

B) Using artificial tears daily

C) Proper eyelid hygiene

D) Wearing sunglasses outdoors

None

5. What is the appropriate initial action for managing a patient with an embedded foreign body in the eye?

A) Attempt to remove the object with forceps

B) Cover the eye and refer to an ophthalmologist

C) Flush the eye with sterile saline

D) Apply antibiotic ointment

None

6. What condition is characterized by inflammation of the iris following blunt eye trauma?

A) Subconjunctival hemorrhage

B) Traumatic iritis

C) Orbital blowout fracture

D) Corneal abrasion

None

7. Which stage of trachoma is characterized by trichiasis?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage IV

D. Stage V

None

8. Which of the following is part of the SAFE strategy for trachoma management?

A. Steroid therapy

B. Antiviral medication

C. Facial cleanliness

D. Eye surgery for cataracts

None

9. Which of the following symptoms would most likely indicate a serious eye injury needing emergency care?

A) Mild eye irritation

B) Unequal pupil sizes

C) Slight redness of the eye

D) Mild tearing

None

10. Which investigation is used to highlight corneal ulcers during an eye examination?

A) Microbial cultures

B) Slit lamp examination with fluorescein dye

C) Tonometry

D) Ophthalmoscopy

None

11. What is the incubation period for trachoma?

A. 1-3 days

B. 5-21 days

C. 10-30 days

D. 2-4 weeks

None

12. What is the primary cause of optic nerve damage in glaucoma?

A) Elevated intraocular pressure

B) Inflammation of the eye

C) Retinal detachment

D) Lens dislocation

None

13. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing glaucoma?

A) Old age

B) Thin corneas

C) Family history

D) All of the above

None

14. What is the primary cause of trachoma?

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

None

15. Which test is primarily used to measure intraocular pressure in glaucoma diagnosis?

A) Perimetry

B) Gonioscopy

C) Tonometry

D) Pachymetry

None

16. Which of the following is a common first-line treatment for Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma?

A) Corticosteroids

B) Topical beta-blockers

C) Oral antibiotics

D) Vitrectomy

None

17. Which of the following is a recommended preventive measure for viral conjunctivitis?

A) Frequent hand washing

B) Use of topical steroids

C) Wearing an eye patch

D) Applying warm compresses

None

18. Which stage of trachoma involves the disappearance of follicles and the appearance of scars?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage III

D. Stage V

None

19. What is the purpose of a Gonioscopy in the diagnosis of glaucoma?

A) To measure the thickness of the cornea

B) To examine the optic nerve

C) To assess the angle of the anterior chamber

D) To test peripheral vision

None

20. Which of the following is NOT a recommended management strategy for bacterial conjunctivitis?

A) Application of topical antibiotics

B) Use of dark goggles

C) Application of a bandage over the eye

D) Avoidance of steroids

None

21. Which of the following is a typical symptom of an external stye?

A) Blurred vision

B) Painful yellowish spot on the eyelid margin

C) Loss of eyelashes

D) Decreased tear production

None

22. Which of the following is true regarding congenital glaucoma?

A) It typically presents in adults over the age of 60

B) It is characterized by the development of cataracts

C) It involves an increase in intraocular pressure from birth or shortly after

D) It is more common in females

None

23. Which of the following complications can arise if a foreign body is not promptly removed from the cornea?

A) Scleral rupture

B) Corneal ulceration

C) Retinal detachment

D) Macular degeneration

None

24. What is the main reason for the persistence of trachoma in certain communities?

A. High levels of UV radiation

B. Low prevalence of infectious diseases

C. Lack of access to healthcare and education

D. Excessive hygiene practices

None

25. Which of the following best describes a mature cataract?

A) The lens is partially opaque with some areas remaining clear.

B) The lens is completely opaque, leading to a significant reduction in vision.

C) The lens is swollen, appearing milky white.

D) The lens nucleus has liquefied and settled within the capsule.

None

26. Which symptom is NOT typically associated with cataracts?

A) Blurred vision

B) Halos around lights

C) Eye redness

D) Difficulty seeing at night

None

27. Which symptom is most commonly associated with adenoid hypertrophy?

A) Jaw deformities

B) Nasal obstruction

C) Persistent cough

D) Otitis media

None

28. What is the preferred antibiotic for treating Group A Streptococcal tonsillitis?

A) Amoxicillin

B) Penicillin

C) Erythromycin

D) Tetracycline

None

29. What is the primary function of the tympanic membrane?

A. To drain fluid from the middle ear

B. To protect the inner ear from loud sounds

C. To transmit sound waves from the outer ear to the ossicles

D. To equalize pressure in the ear

None

30. You know we cant forget to appreciate you for reaching this far, would free marks work for you?

Yah

Nah

None

31. The most significant risk factor for developing cataracts is __________?

32. A 65-year-old patient presents with gradual vision loss in both eyes. On examination, the lens appears cloudy. The most likely diagnosis is a __________.

33. During an eye examination, the intraocular pressure is measured using __________ to help diagnose glaucoma.

34. A patient presents with a painful, swollen eyelid and reports a small, tender bump near the edge of the eyelid. The likely diagnosis is a __________.

35. The presence of excess tearing in one or both eyes is referred to as __________, which can be a symptom of corneal irritation.

36. A patient experiences loss of smell after a head injury . This condition of loss of sense of smell is known as __________.

37. A patient reports intense eye pain, reduced vision, and a feeling of something in the eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals a small, circular area of corneal necrosis. The most likely diagnosis is a __________.

38. The muscles responsible for production of aqueous humor and changing the shape of the lens in the eye to focus on near or distant objects are part of the __________.

39. After prolonged exposure to a dusty environment, a patient presents with itching, redness/pink colouration, and a gritty sensation in the eyes. These symptoms suggest a diagnosis of __________.

40. ______________ refers to sensitivity to light.

Name

Time's up

Surgical Nursing Week 1 Exam Read More »

Surgical Nursing Day 3

Welcome to your Surgical Nursing Day 3

October 4, 2025

20 Numbers, 15 objectives and 5 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which bacterium is most commonly responsible for causing furunculosis in the ear?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Hemolytic streptococci

D) Candida albicans

None

2. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of ear furunculosis?

A) Sudden onset of vertigo

B) Pain and tenderness in the ear canal

C) Bilateral hearing loss

D) Chronic cough

None

3. A child presents with sudden ear pain and a feeling of fullness after playing outside. An insect is suspected to be in the ear. What is the first step in managing this situation?

A) Immediately syringe the ear with cold water

B) Attempt to grasp the insect with forceps

C) Instill clean cooking oil or water to kill the insect

D) Refer the child for surgery under general anesthesia

None

4. What is the primary reason for avoiding the use of forceps in removing smooth, round foreign bodies from the ear?

A) They can cause hearing loss

B) They may push the object further into the ear canal

C) They can break the foreign body into smaller pieces

D) They are not sterile

None

5. A young child has inserted a bead into their nose. Which of the following removal techniques is most appropriate?

A) Syringe with water

B) Use a curved hook or cerumen loop

C) Perform positive pressure ventilation

D) Refer immediately for endoscopic removal

None

6. Which of the following conditions is most likely to mimic the symptoms of ear furunculosis?

A) Otosclerosis

B) Otitis externa

C) Cholesteatoma

D) Meniere's disease

None

7. In which of the following scenarios would referral to an ENT specialist be most appropriate for a patient with ear furunculosis?

A) If the furuncle does not respond to initial treatment

B) If the patient complains of mild itching in the ear

C) If the patient has no fever

D) If the patient reports clear fluid drainage

None

8. Which of the following is NOT a recommended method for removing a foreign body from the ear canal?

A) Irrigation with warm water

B) Use of Hartmann (crocodile) forceps

C) Syringing with cold water

D) Microsuction

None

9. What should be avoided when removing an impacted seed from the ear canal?

A) Syringing with warm water

B) Use of a foreign body hook

C) Immediate referral to an ENT specialist

D) Using crocodile forceps

None

10. After successfully removing a foreign body from a child’s ear, what is an essential next step?

A) Discharge the patient immediately

B) Administer a sedative

C) Re-examine the ear canal

D) Advise the patient to use cotton swabs for ear cleaning

None

11. Which of the following foreign bodies in the ear requires immediate removal due to the risk of damage to the tympanic membrane?

A) Small pebble

B) Button battery

C) Plastic bead

D) Cotton ball

None

12. A patient presents with a fishbone stuck in their throat. Which initial management step is most appropriate?

A) Encourage the patient to swallow bread

B) Attempt to remove the bone with fingers

C) Perform an emergency tracheotomy

D) Refer immediately to an ENT specialist

None

13. Which of the following is a non-invasive technique recommended for the removal of a nasal foreign body in a cooperative child?

A) Suction

B) Positive pressure

C) Balloon catheter

D) Hooked probe

None

14. Why is irrigation generally not recommended for the removal of nasal foreign bodies?

A) It is ineffective for most objects.

B) It increases the risk of aspiration or choking.

C) It causes more pain to the patient.

D) It is too costly compared to other methods.

None

15. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for a patient with anterior epistaxis?

A) Applying nasal packing

B) Tilting the head back

C) Compressing the nostrils

D) Inserting a nasal tampon

None

Fill In Questions

None

16. The medical term for earwax is __________.

17. The instrument commonly used for grasping and holding small objects or tissues in ENT procedures is known as __________ forceps.

18. __________ is a method of earwax removal that involves using a vacuum-like device to gently remove wax from the ear canal.

19. The medical term for a nosebleed is __________.

20. __________ is a vitamin commonly used to aid in the clotting of blood and prevent bleeding disorders.

Name

Time's up

Surgical Nursing Day 3 Read More »

Surgical Nursing Day 2

Welcome to your Surgical Nursing Day 2

October 4, 2025

20 Numbers, 15 objectives and 5 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following is the most common bacterial cause of tonsillitis?

A) Group A Streptococcus

B) Epstein-Barr Virus

C) Haemophilus influenzae

D) Staphylococcus aureus

None

2. Which symptom is most commonly associated with bacterial tonsillitis?

A) Cough

B) White or yellow patches on the tonsils

C) Runny nose

D) Hoarseness

None

3. What is a primary reason for recommending tonsillectomy in children?

A) Chronic rhinorrhea

B) Recurrent tonsillitis

C) Persistent cough

D) Difficulty in breathing while awake

None

4. What is the best initial management step for a child presenting with symptoms of tonsillitis and a high fever?

A) Immediate tonsillectomy

B) Throat swab and culture

C) Antipyretic administration

D) IV antibiotics

None

5. Which complication of tonsillitis is characterized by a pus-filled collection around the tonsil?

A) Otitis media

B) Peritonsillar abscess

C) Rheumatic fever

D) Asthma

None

6. Which symptom differentiates bacterial tonsillitis from viral tonsillitis?

A) Sore throat

B) White or yellow exudates

C) Swollen lymph nodes

D) Fever

None

7. Which of the following is a possible complication of untreated streptococcal tonsillitis?

A) Rheumatic fever

B) Asthma

C) Chronic cough

D) Hypertension

None

8. Which of the following would be included in post-operative care after a tonsillectomy?

A) Encourage heavy lifting

B) Administer anticoagulants

C) Monitor for signs of bleeding

D) Restrict fluid intake

None

9. Which of the following is the primary causative agent of Peritonsillar Abscess (Quinsy)?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

B) Fusobacterium necrophorum

C) Staphylococcus aureus

D) Haemophilus influenzae

None

10. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Peritonsillar Abscess?

A) Dysphagia

B) Trismus

C) Hemoptysis

D) Otalgia

None

11. What is the first-line treatment for a patient with a confirmed Peritonsillar Abscess?

A) Oral antibiotics

B) Incision and drainage

C) Tonsillectomy

D) Observation

None

12. Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in recurrent ear discharge?

A. Acute Otitis Media

B. Otitis Media with Effusion

C. Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media

D. Eustachian Tube Dysfunction

None

13. What is the first-line antibiotic recommended for treating Acute Otitis Media in children?

A. Erythromycin

B. Amoxicillin

C. Cephalexin

D. Ciprofloxacin

None

14. Which surgical procedure is commonly performed for children with recurrent Otitis Media?

A. Tympanocentesis

B. Myringoplasty

C. Grommet insertion

D. Tympanoplasty

None

15. Which diagnostic test is most useful in confirming the presence of fluid in the middle ear?

A. CT Scan

B. Tympanometry

C. Otoscopy

D. Audiometry

None

Fill In Questions

None

16. The medical term for excessive saliva production, which can be seen in conditions like tonsillitis, is __________.

17. The instrument used to examine the ear canal and eardrum is called an __________.

18. The term __________ is another name for a peritonsillar abscess.

19. The medical term for ear pain is __________.

20. __________ is the sensation of ringing or buzzing in the ears, often associated with ear infections.

Name

Time's up

Surgical Nursing Day 2 Read More »

Surgical Nursing Day 1

Welcome to your Surgical Nursing Day 1

October 4, 2025

20 Numbers, 15 objectives and 5 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the primary aim of surgery?

a) Diagnosis of diseases

b) Patient safety

c) Cosmetic improvement

d) Rehabilitation

None

2. Which type of anesthesia involves the patient being fully conscious and only numbing a specific area?

a) General anesthesia

b) Regional anesthesia

c) Local anesthesia

d) Spinal anesthesia

None

3. Which of the following is a complication that may occur after surgery?

a) Increased appetite

b) Hemorrhage

c) Improved mobility

d) Increased energy levels

None

4. Which term refers to the surgical removal of tissue?

a) Incision

b) Excision

c) -plasty

d) -centesis

None

5. Which type of ear tumor is most commonly linked to prolonged sun exposure?

a) Cholesteatoma

b) Ceruminous gland adenoma

c) Acoustic neuroma

d) Squamous cell carcinoma

None

6. Which of the following terms refers to suturing or stitching?

a) -otomy

b) -stomy

c) -rrhaphy

d) -lysis

None

7. Which of the following is a benign tumor arising from Schwann cells?

a) Squamous cell carcinoma

b) Ceruminous gland adenoma

c) Acoustic neuroma

d) Chondrosarcoma

None

8. Which of the following is the most common site of origin for epistaxis (nosebleeds) in the nasal cavity?

A) Frontal sinus

B) Little's area

C) Nasal turbinates

D) Maxillary sinus

None

9. What is the first line of treatment for minor nasal polyps?

A) Antiviral medication

B) Surgical removal

C) Nasal corticosteroids

D) Radiation therapy

None

10. Which of the following is a benign tumor of the throat associated with HPV infection?

A) Nasal polyps

B) Papilloma

C) Nasal angiofibroma

D) Nasal carcinoma

None

11. Which investigation is essential for confirming the diagnosis of nasal carcinoma?

A) X-ray

B) Biopsy

C) Ultrasound

D) Nasal endoscopy

None

12. Which of the following is the most common cause of adenoiditis in children?

A) Epstein-Barr virus

B) Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

C) Haemophilus influenzae

D) Staphylococcus aureus

None

13. What is the primary role of adenoids in the immune system?

A) Produce antibodies

B) Trap and destroy pathogens

C) Filter toxins from the blood

D) Regulate body temperature

None

14. Which of the following is the primary reason for enforcing an NPO (nothing by mouth) status before adenoidectomy in pediatric patients?

A) To prevent aspiration during surgery

B) To reduce the risk of infection

C) To minimize postoperative pain

D) To ensure adequate hydration before surgery

None

15. A pediatric patient scheduled for adenoidectomy is instructed to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before the surgery. Which of the following best describes the allowed intake during this period?

A) Clear liquids up to 2 hours before surgery

B) Breast milk up to 4 hours before surgery

C) Formula milk up to 6 hours before surgery

D) No intake, including water, for 8 hours before surgery

None

Fill In Questions

None

16. The surgical removal of the adenoids is called ________.

17. The most severe form of adenoid hypertrophy, where the adenoid tissue contacts the torus tubaris, vomer, and soft palate in resting position, is classified as Grade ________.

18. Enlarged adenoids that block the airway during sleep can lead to ________, a condition characterized by pauses in breathing.

19. How many hours of NPO (nothing by mouth) are generally required before surgery to reduce the risk of aspiration?

20. The ________ is the middle auditory ossicle that transmits sound vibrations from the malleus to the stapes.

Name

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Surgical Nursing Day 1 Read More »

Paediatrics Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Paediatrics Week 1 Exam

October 4, 2025

35 Numbers, 30 objectives and 5 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. Which of the following best describes apnea in full-term infants?

A) Cessation of breathing for less than 10 seconds

B) Cessation of breathing for more than 20 seconds

C) Cessation of breathing with a heart rate above 100 bpm

D) Cessation of breathing only during feeding

None

2. Which type of apnea is most commonly associated with a failure of the brain to send signals to the breathing muscles?

A) Obstructive Apnea

B) Central Apnea

C) Mixed Apnea

D) Periodic Breathing

None

3. Which pathogen is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in adults?

a) Klebsiella pneumoniae

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) Streptococcus pneumoniae

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

None

4. Which of the following complications is most directly related to bacterial pneumonia?

a) Emphysema

b) Pneumothorax

c) Lung abscess

d) Pulmonary embolism

None

5. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for children with non-severe pneumonia?

a) Ceftriaxone

b) Amoxicillin

c) Vancomycin

d) Gentamicin

None

6. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological process in asthma?

A) Airway muscle relaxation

B) Airway inflammation leading to airway narrowing

C) Decreased mucus production

D) Increased alveolar surfactant production

None

7. What is the primary reason for administering corticosteroids in the management of asthma?

A) To increase mucus production

B) To reduce inflammation in the airways

C) To relax the airway muscles

D) To block histamine release

None

8. Which of the following is the primary cause of Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) in premature infants?

A. Genetic mutations

B. Surfactant deficiency

C. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

D. Maternal smoking

None

9. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient with severe asthma exacerbation?

A) Risk for impaired skin integrity

B) Ineffective airway clearance

C) Deficient fluid volume

D) Risk for imbalanced nutrition

None

10. Which intervention is most appropriate for a premature infant experiencing apnea that does not respond to tactile stimulation?

A) Immediate feeding

B) Administration of caffeine citrate

C) Monitoring without intervention

D) Suctioning the mouth and nostrils

None

11. Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c) Pneumocystis jirovecii

d) Haemophilus influenzae

None

12. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most specific for assessing the degree of airway obstruction in asthma?

A) Chest X-ray

B) Blood and sputum tests

C) Spirometry

D) Skin tests

None

13. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

A) Long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs)

B) Inhaled short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)

C) Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)

D) Oral theophylline

None

14. What is the recommended initial dose of adrenaline (epinephrine) for a newborn with a heart rate less than 60 bpm despite 1 minute of effective ventilation and chest compressions?

A. 0.1-0.3 ml/kg of 1:10,000 solution

B. 0.5-1.0 ml/kg of 1:10,000 solution

C. 1-2 ml/kg of 1:1,000 solution

D. 2-4 ml/kg of 1:1,000 solution

None

15. Which clinical feature is most likely to be observed during an episode of apnea in a neonate?

A) Tachycardia

B) Cyanosis

C) Increased activity

D) Hyperventilation

None

16. Which of the following signs is a late indicator of respiratory distress in a newborn?

A. Tachypnea

B. Nasal flaring

C. Central cyanosis

D. Expiratory grunt

None

17. Which of the following is a common trigger for apnea in premature infants?

A) Well-controlled blood glucose levels

B) Maternal prenatal drug exposure

C) Advanced gestational age

D) Hyperthermia

None

18. Which maternal condition is associated with an increased risk of Respiratory Distress Syndrome in the newborn?

A. Hypertension

B. Diabetes

C. Hyperthyroidism

D. Anemia

None

19. Which clinical manifestation is most commonly associated with an acute asthma attack?

A) Bradycardia

B) Wheezing

C) Increased blood pressure

D) Dry mouth

None

20. What is the primary reason for using pulse oximetry in a neonate with apnea?

A) To monitor blood pressure

B) To detect changes in oxygen saturation

C) To assess feeding tolerance

D) To measure body temperature

None

21. What is the primary reason for giving prophylactic surfactant therapy to very premature infants?

A. To reduce the risk of bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)

B. To prevent congenital heart defects

C. To treat meconium aspiration syndrome

D. To lower blood glucose levels

None

22. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for developing Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD)?

A) Lung infection

B) Prematurity

C) High maternal age

D) Vitamin A deficiency

None

23. Which diagnostic test is most useful in confirming the presence of meconium in the trachea?

A) Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)

B) Chest X-ray

C) High-Resolution Chest Computed Tomography (HRCT)

D) Endotracheal suctioning

None

24. Which of the following is an appropriate management strategy for an infant with Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS) who is not vigorous at birth?

A) Immediate surfactant therapy

B) Admission to the NICU

C) Early enteral feeding

D) Minimizing respiratory support

None

25. Which medication is used to manage the inflammation associated with Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS)?

A) Bronchodilators

B) Corticosteroids

C) Diuretics

D) Antifungals

None

26. Meconium aspiration syndrome is characterized by the aspiration of:

a) Amniotic fluid

b) Blood

c) Urine

d) Fecal material

None

27. Which of the following conditions can cause fetal distress and lead to the untimely passage of meconium?

a) Placental insufficiency

b) Preeclampsia

c) Maternal infection/chorioamnionitis

d) All of the above

None

28. Which of the following clinical features is commonly observed in infants with Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD)?

a) Tachypnea

b) Wheezing

c) Bluish discoloration around the mouth or lips

d) All of the above

None

29. In some cases, infants with BPD may require cardiac medications to:

a) Relax the muscles around the air passages

b) Reduce inflammation within the lungs

c) Prevent viral infections

d) Relax the muscles around the blood vessels in the lung

None

30. You know we cant forget to appreciate you for reaching this far, would free marks work for you?

Yes yes

No please, UNMEB won't give me

None

Fill In Questions

None

31. The sound commonly heard in the chest of infants with conditions such as Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia or asthma, characterized by a high-pitched, musical noise during expiration, is referred to as __________.

32. __________ are tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs between the air and the blood, and are affected in pneumonia.

33. When a newborn inhales a mixture of fecal matter and amniotic fluid during labor or delivery, leading to respiratory complications, this condition is known as __________.

34. __________ refers to a type of apnea where the infant's breathing stops due to a failure in the central nervous system’s control over respiratory function.

35. The __________ is a rapid assessment tool used to evaluate the physical condition of a newborn immediately after birth, including heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, reflex response, and color.

Name

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Paediatrics Week 1 Exam Read More »

Paediatrics Day 1 and 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Paediatrics Day 1 and 2 Quiz

October 4, 2025

Attempt all Numbers.

1. A newborn infant is delivered prematurely at 28 weeks gestation. The neonatologist begins resuscitation efforts immediately. After initial drying and clearing of the airway, the baby still does not show spontaneous breathing. What is the next appropriate step in neonatal resuscitation for this infant?

A) Administer intravenous calcium gluconate

B) Perform external cardiac massage

C) Apply an Ambu-bag and give five inflation breaths

D) Inject 10% dextrose through the umbilical vein

None

2. Which of the following is the first step in the resuscitation of a newborn?

A. Apply an ambu-bag and mask to the baby’s face

B. Clear the airway by suctioning blood or mucus

C. Dry the baby and remove any wet cloth

D. Perform chest compressions

None

3. What is the recommended rate of chest compressions for a newborn during resuscitation?

A. 60-80 compressions per minute

B. 100-120 compressions per minute

C. 30-40 compressions per minute

D. 50-70 compressions per minute

None

4. If a newborn has a heart rate below 60 bpm despite effective ventilation and chest compressions, what is the next step?

A. Administer 10% dextrose

B. Give Naloxone hydrochloride

C. Administer adrenaline (epinephrine)

D. Begin nasal CPAP

None

5. Which drug is used to reverse the effects of maternal narcotics in a newborn?

A. Adrenaline (epinephrine)

B. Naloxone hydrochloride

C. Calcium gluconate

D. 10% dextrose

None

6. During resuscitation, when should chest compressions be initiated?

A. When the heart rate is less than 100 bpm

B. Immediately upon birth if the baby is not crying

C. When the heart rate is less than 60 bpm

D. When there are signs of severe respiratory distress

None

7. What is the primary cause of Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) in premature infants?

A) Genetic factors

B) Surfactant deficiency

C) Infection during delivery

D) Congenital heart defects

None

8. Which of the following best describes the role of surfactant in the lungs?

A) It helps in oxygen transportation to tissues.

B) It stabilizes the alveoli and prevents lung collapse.

C) It aids in the absorption of nutrients from the lungs.

D) It acts as a protective barrier against infections.

None

9. In the management of RDS, what is the role of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)?

A) To provide nutrition

B) To prevent lung infections

C) To maintain alveolar expansion

D) To reduce inflammation

None

10. Which of the following is a preventive measure for RDS in at-risk pregnancies?

A) Administering surfactant to the newborn immediately after birth

B) Delaying delivery until full-term

C) Providing antenatal corticosteroids to the mother

D) Immediate C-section delivery

None

11. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia?

A) Tachypnea

B) Cyanosis

C) Bradycardia

D) Wheezing

None

12. In the classification of BPD, what characterizes severe BPD?

A) Infants requiring less than 30% oxygen

B) Infants weaned off oxygen by 36 weeks

C) Infants requiring more than 30% oxygen and/or mechanical ventilation

D) Infants with no need for oxygen therapy post-28 days

None

13. What is the most common cause of Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS) in newborns?

A) Congenital heart defects

B) Fetal distress

C) Maternal diabetes

D) Preterm birth

None

14. What is the primary mechanism by which meconium causes respiratory issues in MAS?

A) Surfactant production

B) Airway obstruction

C) Pulmonary embolism

D) Cardiac failure

None

15. Which diagnostic procedure is most useful in assessing Pulmonary Hemorrhage (PH)?

A) Bronchoscopy

B) Abdominal ultrasound

C) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

D) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

None

16. The presence of __________ in the amniotic fluid is a key indicator of Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS).

17. In Pulmonary Hemorrhage (PH), coughing up blood is a key clinical sign. Coughing blood is also known as _____________________?

18. To assess Pulmonary Hemorrhage (PH), __________ is a useful diagnostic tool for visualizing lung abnormalities using a tube ffitted with light and a camera..

19. The lack of __________ in the alveoli is a key factor contributing to Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS).

20. How were the questions?

Doable, am sure i passed highly

Seems these are new

None

Name

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Paediatrics Day 1 and 2 Quiz Read More »

Medicine Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Medicine Week 1 Exam

October 4, 2025

30 Numbers, 20 objectives and 10 fill ins

Attempt all Numbers.

1. What is the most common causative factor of Bell's Palsy?

A) Bacterial infection

B) Herpes simplex virus infection

C) Autoimmune disorder

D) Stroke

None

2. What is a hallmark symptom of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Constant, dull headache

B) Sudden, severe, and stabbing facial pain

C) Facial numbness

D) Gradual onset of facial weakness

None

3. What is the most common presenting feature of Acromegaly?

A) Weight loss

B) Enlarged hands and feet

C) Decreased muscle strength

D) Short stature

None

4. What is the primary cause of Gigantism?

A) Excessive secretion of growth hormone after epiphyseal plate closure

B) Growth hormone deficiency

C) Excessive secretion of growth hormone before epiphyseal plate closure

D) Pituitary hypofunction

None

5. In the Nursing Process, which phase involves setting measurable and achievable short-term and long-term goals for the patient?

A) Assessment

B) Diagnosis

C) Planning

D) Evaluation

None

6. Which of the following is the best initial treatment option for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Surgical decompression

B) Antiviral medication

C) Anticonvulsant medication

D) Corticosteroids

None

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of the nursing diagnosis?

A) It is a medical diagnosis

B) It focuses on the pathophysiology of the disease

C) It identifies the patient’s response to health problems

D) It only includes physical problems

None

8. Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with Intracranial Hemorrhage?

A) Sudden onset of severe headache

B) Gradual onset of mild headache

C) Bilateral limb weakness

D) Chronic fatigue

None

9. Which condition is most likely to present with hyperglycemia and hyperhidrosis as a result of a pituitary adenoma?

A) Trigeminal Neuralgia

B) Acromegaly

C) Bell's Palsy

D) Intracranial Hemorrhage

None

10. Which of the following is the most common cause of primary hyperthyroidism?

A) Thyroidectomy

B) Graves' disease

C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

D) Pituitary adenoma

None

11. Which clinical feature is most commonly associated with hypothyroidism?

A) Heat intolerance

B) Weight loss

C) Bradycardia

D) Diarrhea

None

12. Which of the following conditions is characterized by excessive production of cortisol?

A) Addison's disease

B) Cushing's syndrome

C) Graves' disease

D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

None

13. In a patient with Addison's disease, which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be observed?

A) Hypernatremia

B) Hyperkalemia

C) Hypercalcemia

D) Hypokalemia

None

14. In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following is the primary treatment?

A) Insulin therapy

B) Calcium gluconate

C) Oral hypoglycemic agents

D) Beta-blockers

None

15. Pheochromocytoma is most commonly associated with which of the following symptoms?

A) Persistent hypoglycemia

B) Severe hypertension

C) Chronic fatigue

D) Bradycardia

None

16. Which complication is most likely to occur in a patient with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Retinopathy

C) Hypotension

D) Hyperthyroidism

None

17. Which condition is most likely associated with Conn's syndrome?

A) Hyperthyroidism

B) Hyperaldosteronism

C) Hypoglycemia

D) Hyperkalemia

None

18. Which intervention is most appropriate for managing a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to hemorrhage?

A) Fluid overload

B) Supine positioning

C) Elevating the head of the bed

D) Deep sedation

None

19. Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF-1) primarily mediates the effects of which hormone in the human body?

A) Thyroid hormone

B) Cortisol

C) Growth hormone

D) Adrenaline

None

20. Need a free mark?

Yah

Give it to the needy

None

21. __________ is a rare condition characterized by excessive growth hormone in children before the closure of growth plates.

22. In Type 1 diabetes, the immune system attacks and destroys __________ cells in the pancreas.

23. The __________ is a type of tumor that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines, leading to symptoms like hypertension and palpitations.

24. The condition characterized by adrenocortical insufficiency is called______________

25. Excessive insulin administration can lead to a condition known as____________

26. __________ is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance.

27. __________ is characterized by the overproduction of thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms such as weight loss and tremors.

28. Exophthalmos, common in Grave's disease is also known as ____________?

29. The __________ phase of the nursing process involves collecting and analyzing data about a patient’s condition.

30. Acromegaly is characterized by excess growth hormone, which leads to increased levels of IGF-1, a hormone that promotes growth. IGF in full is________________________?

Name

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Medicine Week 1 Exam Read More »