Quizzes & Surveys - Page 8 of 14

Pediatrics Day 1 Quiz

Welcome to your Pediatrics Day 1 Quiz

20 Questions

October 4, 2025

1. What is the classification of Haemophilus influenzae based on the presence or absence of a capsule?

A) Gram-positive and Gram-negative

B) Aerobic and Anaerobic

C) Encapsulated and Unencapsulated

D) Cocci and Bacilli

None

2. Which type of Haemophilus influenzae is the most prevalent and notorious for causing severe diseases?

A) Type a

B) Type c

C) Type b

D) Type f

None

3. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

A) Bacteremia

B) Otitis media

C) Malaria

D) Pneumonia

None

4. What is the primary mode of spread for Haemophilus influenzae?

A) Fecal-oral route

B) Vector-borne transmission

C) Person-to-person through respiratory droplets

D) Sexual contact

None

5. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to the risk of Haemophilus influenzae infection?

A) Large household size

B) High socioeconomic status

C) Childcare attendance

D) Chronic diseases

None

6. What is the first-line treatment for severe Haemophilus influenzae infections?

A) Penicillin

B) Macrolides

C) Third-generation cephalosporins

D) Aminoglycosides

None

7. What preventive measure is highly effective in reducing the incidence of invasive Haemophilus influenzae diseases?

A) Hand hygiene

B) Hib vaccine

C) Antibiotic prophylaxis

D) Respiratory etiquette

None

8. Which age group is particularly vulnerable to severe Haemophilus influenzae infections due to underdeveloped immune systems?

A) Adolescents

B) Young adults

C) Elderly

D) Infants

None

9. What complication may arise due to swelling of the epiglottis in Haemophilus influenzae epiglottitis?

A) Joint damage

B) Airway obstruction

C) Sepsis

D) Hearing impairment

None

10. What are the three membranes that collectively enclose and protect the brain and spinal cord, known as the meninges?

a) Parietal, occipital, temporal

b) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

c) Diencephalon, mesencephalon, myelencephalon

d) Frontal, parietal, temporal

None

11. What is the classical triad of symptoms associated with meningitis?

a) Nuchal rigidity, fever, photophobia

b) Headache, fever, neck stiffness

c) Altered consciousness, vomiting, leg pain

d) Severe headache, seizures, photophobia

None

12. Which sign is specific for meningitis and is characterized by neck flexion causing involuntary knee and hip flexion?

a) Positive Kernig's sign

b) Positive Brudzinski's sign

c) Positive Chaddock's sign

d) Positive Babinski's sign

None

13. Which of the following conditions is associated with a lack of spleen and is considered a risk factor for meningitis?

a) Diabetes mellitus

b) Sickle cell disease

c) Asplenia

d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

None

14. Which preventive measure involves placing the patient in a dedicated room and wearing protective gear to prevent the spread of the infectious agent to others?

a) Vaccination

b) Isolation precautions

c) Antibiotic prophylaxis

d) Personal hygiene

None

15. Which term is used to describe individuals with reproductive or sexual anatomy that doesn't align with the traditional definitions of "male" or "female"?

a) Hermaphrodites

b) Congenital eunuchs

c) Intersex

d) Frigid

None

16. What are the two chromosome pairs in humans, representing genetic sex?

a) XY for females and XX for males

b) XY for males and XX for females

c) YY for males and XX for females

d) XX for males and XY for females

None

17. Which condition involves the overproduction of androgens by the adrenal glands, affecting genital development in females?

a) Turner syndrome

b) Klinefelter syndrome

c) Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)

d) Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

None

18. What does "46" refer to in the context of intersex chromosomes?

a) The number of sex chromosomes in an abnormal human cell

b) The total number of chromosomes in a normal human cell

c) The number of chromosomes contributed by the father

d) The number of chromosomes contributed by the mother

None

19. Which type of surgery involves the removal of gonads to address concerns related to gonadal cancer risk or hormone imbalances?

a) Genital reconstruction surgery

b) Gonadectomy

c) Corrective surgery

d) Breast augmentation or chest reconstruction

None

20. What is one of the challenges faced by intersex individuals related to societal perceptions and acceptance?

a) Abandonment

b) Infanticide

c) Stigmatization

d) Unequal treatment

None

Name

Time's up

Pediatrics Day 1 Quiz Read More »

Entrepreneurship Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Entrepreneurship Week 1 Exam

40 Questions, 30 MCQ's and 10 Fill-in's.

October 4, 2025

1. What distinguishes an entrepreneur from a manager?

a) Their approach to decision-making

b) Their role in the organization

c) Their motivation for innovation

d) Their focus on long-term goals

None

2. Which type of entrepreneur is motivated by circumstances beyond their control?

a) Innovative Entrepreneur

b) Imitative Entrepreneur

c) Push (Forced or Necessity) Entrepreneur

d) Pull (Motivated) Entrepreneur

None

3. What is the primary motivation for a pure entrepreneur?

a) Financial rewards

b) Personal satisfaction

c) Power and control

d) Achieving organizational competitiveness

None

4. In the entrepreneurial process, what is the first step?

a) Business planning

b) Generation of ideas

c) Evaluating the idea

d) Self-entrepreneurial identification

None

5. Which factor is crucial for the success of a business in Uganda?

a) Political instability

b) Intense competition

c) Seasonality of markets

d) Government support

None

6. Who is responsible for creating new products within a large organization?

a) Entrepreneur

b) Intrapreneur

c) Manager

d) Government

None

7. What is a business idea?

a) A plan for personal development

b) A concept for making money through financial investments

c) An identified situation that can be turned into a profitable activity or business

d) A strategy for socializing in the business community

None

8. How can entrepreneurs identify potential business opportunities?

a) By focusing solely on their personal interests

b) By conducting market research and analysis

c) By relying on intuition and gut feelings

d) By following trends without critical evaluation

None

9. What factor should entrepreneurs consider when evaluating the feasibility of a business idea?

a) Personal preferences and interests

b) Theoretical market demand

c) Technical skills and resources required

d) Lack of competition

None

10. What characteristic makes a business opportunity attractive?

a) Limited growth potential

b) High initial investment requirements

c) Reasonable ease of entry into the market

d) Overwhelming legal restrictions

None

11. What is the significance of personnel feasibility in evaluating a business opportunity?

a) To discourage entrepreneurship

b) To limit the growth potential of the business

c) To ensure that the business has the necessary human resources for success

d) To minimize market demand

None

12. What is a sole proprietorship?

a) A business owned and managed by multiple individuals

b) A business with limited liability for its owner

c) A business owned and managed by one person

d) A business owned by the government

None

13. Which of the following is a characteristic of a partnership?

a) Limited liability for all partners

b) Sole decision-making authority of one partner

c) Business owned and managed by one person

d) Profit and loss sharing among partners

None

14. What distinguishes a general partnership from a limited partnership?

a) Number of partners involved

b) Liability of partners

c) Type of business conducted

d) Location of the business

None

15. What is the maximum number of members allowed in a partnership?

a) 50

b) 20

c) 14

d) 100

None

16. Which document serves as the foundation of a company's constitution?

a) Partnership deed

b) Memorandum of Association

c) Articles of Association

d) Certificate of Incorporation

None

17. What is the primary reason for the dissolution of a company?

a) Limited liability

b) Increased profitability

c) Bankruptcy

d) Ease of formation

None

18. What is a cooperative?

a) A government-owned business

b) A business owned and controlled by its members

c) A privately-owned corporation

d) A partnership between two companies

None

19. Which principle of insurance ensures that the insured must have a financial loss if the property or business is damaged?

a) Principle of Utmost Good Faith

b) Principle of Insurable Interest

c) Principle of Indemnity

d) Principle of Subrogation

None

20. Which financial statement reports a company's financial position at a specific point in time?

a) Income statement

b) Cash flow statement

c) Balance sheet

d) Statement of retained earnings

None

21. Public companies can have a minimum of __________ members, while private companies can have a minimum of 2 members.

22. Entrepreneurship within an existing business is referred to as __________.

23. The term used to mean possibility of suffering loss, harm, or danger in business is __________.

24. A process of attracting, screening, and selecting a qualified person for a job is known as __________.

25. A process of choosing applicants using job qualification guide is termed as __________.

26. A resource in management that is usually considered non-renewable is __________.

27. Equipment or items designed for single use are referred to as __________.

28. Recording, labeling, and holding equipment in a stock or storeroom is known as __________.

29. The type of entrepreneurship that deals with societal well-being is known as _________Entrepreneurship

30. How far now? Are you somewhere ready? Because the above fill ins are from UNMEB past papers.

Yes, Kinda ready

Still a long way to go.

None

31. Which of the following is NOT a key component of IMCI?

a) Improving case management skills of healthcare providers

b) Improving health systems to provide quality care

c) Promoting vaccination campaigns only

d) Improving family and community health practices

None

32. What does the pink color classification indicate in the IMCI guidelines?

a) Not serious, no drugs needed

b) Urgent referral needed

c) Specific treatment needed

d) Routine follow-up required

None

33. What is considered a general danger sign in a sick child?

a) Runny nose

b) Sneezing

c) Lethargy

d) Hiccups

None

34. What action should be taken if a child is convulsing now?

a) Wait and observe

b) Administer diazepam

c) Offer the child clean water

d) Refer the child for a routine check-up

None

35. How is persistent diarrhea defined?

a) Diarrhea lasting less than 14 days

b) Diarrhea lasting 14 days or more

c) Diarrhea with blood in the stool

d) Diarrhea with vomiting

None

36. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of severe dehydration in a child?

a) Sunken eyes

b) Eager drinking

c) Weak or absent pulse

d) Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds

None

37. What is the classification for a child with a temperature of 38.5°C or above and no signs of severe malaria?

a) Uncomplicated malaria

b) Very severe febrile disease

c) Fever: no malaria

d) Severe malaria

None

38. A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic with diarrhea lasting for 10 days. The child appears restless and irritable, with sunken eyes noted on examination. How would you classify this child's condition?

a) No dehydration

b) Some dehydration

c) Severe dehydration

d) Hypovolaemic shock

None

39. A 4-year-old child presents with a temperature of 38.7°C and a history of traveling to a high malaria risk area. On examination, there is no evidence of stiff neck or severe dehydration. How would you classify this child's fever?

a) Very severe febrile disease

b) Uncomplicated malaria

c) Fever: no malaria

d) Severe malaria

None

40. A 9-month-old infant presents with a cough and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you notice chest in-drawing and a respiratory rate of 52 breaths per minute. The child is alert and responsive. How would you classify this child's condition?

a) No signs of pneumonia or very severe disease

b) Pneumonia

c) Severe pneumonia

d) Hypovolaemic shock

None

Name

Time's up

Entrepreneurship Week 1 Exam Read More »

Entrepreneurship Day 4 Quiz

Welcome to your Entrepreneurship Day 4 Quiz

20 Questions, 15 MCQ's and 5 Fill-in's.

October 4, 2025

1. What is a business opportunity?

a) A concept that could be used to make money

b) An identified situation that can be changed into a real and profitable activity or business

c) A proposition that guarantees monetary return

d) An idea that requires no further development

None

2. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a good business opportunity?

a) Availability of real demand/market

b) High return on investment

c) Compliance with applicable laws and regulations

d) Availability of required resources

None

3. What is the importance of coming up with business ideas/opportunities?

a) To comply with legal requirements

b) To satisfy personal interests

c) To stay ahead of competition and respond to market needs

d) To generate revenue without any effort

None

4. What is the purpose of a feasibility study in evaluating a business opportunity?

a) To assess the profitability and feasibility of the business opportunity

b) To determine the legal requirements for starting a business

c) To generate revenue for the entrepreneur

d) To obtain financial assistance from the government

None

5. Which step in starting a business involves creating a detailed plan outlining the business concept, target market, and marketing strategies?

a) Mobilizing necessary resources

b) Completing legal formalities

c) Preparing a business plan

d) Launching the enterprise

None

6. Why is it important to protect your business idea?

a) To prevent competitors from copying your idea

b) To secure exclusive rights to your intellectual property

c) To attract investors and partners

d) All of the above

None

7. Which type of business opportunity involves selling goods directly to consumers?

a) Franchise

b) Wholesale

c) Retail

d) Independent

None

8. What form of business organization is owned and managed by one person with unlimited liability?

a) Partnership

b) Corporation

c) Cooperative

d) Sole Proprietorship

None

9. What is a characteristic of a general partnership?

a) Limited liability for all partners

b) Only one partner involved in decision-making

c) Unlimited number of partners allowed

d) All partners have unlimited liability

None

10. Which type of partner is liable only to the extent of their capital contribution and does not participate in the day-to-day operations of the business?

a) Active partner

b) Dormant partner

c) Nominal partner

d) General partner

None

11. What is a distinguishing feature of a joint stock company?

a) Limited liability for all members

b) Unlimited number of members

c) Joint ownership of assets

d) Transferability of shares

None

12. Which type of company allows for the sale of shares to family members and friends but restricts the transfer of shares without shareholder consent?

a) Public Limited Liability Companies

b) Government Companies

c) Private Limited Liability Companies

d) Companies Limited by Guarantee

None

13. Which type of business records include documentation of a business's transactions, income, expenses, and equity?

a) Legal documents

b) Insurance documents

c) Bank statements

d) Accounting records

None

14. What are indicators of a viable business idea/opportunity?

a) High expenses

b) Low demand

c) Rate of Return on Investment (ROI)

d) Lack of resources

None

15. What is the first step in starting a business?

a) Choosing a location

b) Forecasting sales

c) Identify the business opportunity

d) Hiring employees

None

16. ________________ is the process of generating new ideas and turning them into successful innovations.

17. ___________ records document a business's financial transactions, including income, expenses, and equity.

18. Risk Transfer/Sharing involves shifting the risk to another party to suffer the loss if it happens, such as through ________________.

19. _________________is the first stage of the creativity process.

20. A ___________ is an identified situation that can be turned into a profitable business.

Name

Time's up

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Entrepreneurship Day 2 and 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Entrepreneurship Day 2 and 3 Quiz

25 Questions, 20 MCQ's and 5 Fill-in's.

October 4, 2025

1. What is a characteristic of small businesses regarding their ownership structure?

a) Publicly traded

b) Government-owned

c) Closely held

d) Privately held

None

2. Which factor is typically used to measure the size of small businesses?

a) Number of employees

b) Annual sales volume

c) Extensive fixed assets

d) All of the above

None

3. Which type of small business activity involves providing specialized expertise or skills?

a) Manufacturing

b) Retailing

c) Professional service

d) Wholesaling

None

4. What role does optimism play in enhancing creativity?

a) It fosters a positive mindset and resilience.

b) It leads to conformity to social norms.

c) It inhibits risk-taking.

d) It encourages negative self-talk.

None

5. Which stage of the creativity process involves building on the initial idea and testing its viability?

a) Preparation

b) Incubation

c) Illumination

d) Verification/Implementation

None

6. What is innovation?

a) The process of increasing profits

b) The implementation of a new or significantly improved product, service, or process that creates value

c) The process of hiring new employees

d) The act of following established practices

None

7. What are internal sources of innovation?

a) Changes in perception

b) New knowledge or technology

c) Unexpected occurrences

d) Industry and market changes

None

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of innovators?

a) Lack of self-discipline

b) Resistance to change

c) Persistence in pursuing goals

d) Dependence on external motivation

None

9. What is the importance of motivation in a business?

a) It increases competition among employees

b) It prevents employees from seeking alternative employment opportunities

c) It reduces productivity

d) It leads to expensive court lawsuits

None

10. Which of the following is a principle of good business ethics?

a) Deception and dishonesty

b) Conflict of interest

c) Transparency and honesty

d) Exploitation of workers

None

11. What is the purpose of negotiation?

a) To maintain conflicts

b) To avoid reaching agreements

c) To reach a joint agreement about differing needs or ideas

d) To impose one party's will on the other

None

12. What is the significance of business ethics?

a) It promotes corruption

b) It increases labor turnover

c) It avoids expensive court lawsuits

d) It leads to poor quality products

None

13. Which of the following is NOT a type of negotiation?

a) Day to day negotiation at workplace

b) Legal negotiation

c) Political negotiation

d) Commercial negotiation

None

14. What is a code of ethics?

a) A set of rules to promote corruption

b) Guidelines for acceptable behavior in an organization

c) Instructions for misleading advertisements

d) Strategies for exploiting workers

None

15. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of business ethics?

a) Absence of one agreed moral code

b) Pursuit of profits as a major objective

c) High employee turnover

d) Limited resources

None

16. What is a business idea?

a) A random thought

b) An identified situation that can be turned into a profitable business

c) A daydream

d) An impossible fantasy

None

17. What are indicators of a viable business idea/opportunity?

a) High expenses

b) Low demand

c) Rate of Return on Investment (ROI)

d) Lack of resources

None

18. Which of the following is NOT a source of business ideas/opportunities?

a) Attending trade fairs

b) Reading industry publications

c) Avoiding discussions with entrepreneurs

d) Observing the market critically

None

19. Which step in evaluating a business opportunity focuses on production or operations?

a) Objective analysis

b) Market feasibility

c) Technical feasibility

d) Financial feasibility

None

20. What is the first step in starting a business?

a) Choosing a location

b) Forecasting sales

c) Deciding on the type of business

d) Hiring employees

None

21. ________________ is the process of generating new ideas and turning them into successful innovations.

22. ________________ risks are minimal risks that do not yield significant benefits or cause substantial damage.

23. Risk Transfer/Sharing involves shifting the risk to another party to suffer the loss if it happens, such as through ________________.

24. _________________is the first stage of the creativity process.

25. A ___________ is an identified situation that can be turned into a profitable business.

Name

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Entrepreneurship Day 2 and 3 Quiz Read More »

Entrepreneurship Day 1 Quiz

Welcome to your Entrepreneurship Day 1 Quiz

20 Questions, 15 MCQ's and 5 Fill-in's.

October 4, 2025

1. Which term refers to a legally binding agreement between two or more parties that creates, modifies, or terminates a legal relationship?

a) Transaction

b) Contract

c) Drawings

d) Debit Note

None

2. What do liabilities refer to in business?

a) Financial obligations of the business

b) Resources owned by the business

c) Payments to shareholders

d) Fixed assets of the business

None

3. What type of assets are machinery, land, vehicles, and equipment examples of?

a) Current assets

b) Fixed assets

c) Liquid assets

d) Informational assets

None

4. What do barriers to entrepreneurship hinder?

a) Development of innovation

b) Growth of multinational corporations

c) Development of entrepreneurship

d) Expansion of government agencies

None

5. What is the importance of studying entrepreneurship for individuals?

a) Promotes political stability

b) Enhances interpersonal relationships

c) Allows individuals to take control of their own lives

d) Increases competitiveness in the industry

None

6. Which term refers to the process of managing the flow of goods and services from suppliers to customers?

a) Corporate Social Responsibility

b) Supply Chain Management

c) Dividends

d) Taxes

None

7. What quality allows entrepreneurs to identify and seize opportunities?

a) Persistence

b) Emotional stability

c) Opportunity seeking

d) Goal setting

None

8. How do entrepreneurs contribute to economic growth in terms of GDP?

a) By creating new industries and businesses

b) By creating new products and services

c) By investing in research and development

d) By exporting products and services

None

9. What role does entrepreneurship play in innovation?

a) It leads to the creation of new industries

b) It leads to the creation of new products and services

c) It promotes political stability

d) It improves the image of the community

None

10. Which term refers to the gradual reduction in the value of fixed assets through usage in the production process?

a) Depreciation

b) Dividends

c) Salary

d) Wage

None

11. What quality allows entrepreneurs to overcome challenges and setbacks?

a) Perseverance

b) Leadership skills

c) Tolerance

d) Unique skills

None

12. Which type of entrepreneur is characterized by being forced into business due to circumstances beyond their control?

a) Innovative entrepreneur

b) Imitative entrepreneur

c) Push (Necessity) entrepreneur

d) Pull (Motivated) entrepreneur

None

13. What distinguishes an entrepreneur from a manager?

a) Entrepreneurship focuses on long-term profits, while management focuses on short-term goals.

b) Entrepreneurs bear all risks, while managers do not shoulder any serious risk.

c) Entrepreneurs are employed to run the business, while managers are the owners of the company.

d) Entrepreneurs are motivated by power and rewards, while managers are motivated by achievement.

None

14. Which stage of the entrepreneurial process involves identifying oneself as a potential entrepreneur?

a) Generation of ideas

b) Evaluating the idea

c) Business planning

d) Self-entrepreneurial identification

None

15. What distinguishes an intrapreneur from an entrepreneur?

a) Intrapreneurs work within existing company structures, while entrepreneurs start their own businesses.

b) Intrapreneurs bear all risks associated with business operations, while entrepreneurs do not shoulder any serious risk.

c) Intrapreneurs focus on long-term profits, while entrepreneurs focus on short-term goals.

d) Intrapreneurs are motivated by financial rewards, while entrepreneurs are motivated by passion.

None

16. The process of choosing the most suitable candidate for a job among the many applicants is called __________.

17. The type of entrepreneurship that deals with societal well-being is known as __________entrepreneurship.

18. Entrepreneurship within an existing business is referred to as __________.

19. The term used to mean possibility of suffering loss, harm, or danger in business is __________.

20. A resource in management that is usually considered non-renewable is __________.

Name

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Health Service Management Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Health Service Management Week 1 Exam

40 MCQ's Questions with 1o Fill ins

Remember to Input your correct email to receive a copy of your results.

October 4, 2025

1. What defines a formal leader?

a) Inherited traits

b) Legitimate authority from a position

c) Charisma and charm

d) Force and coercion

None

2. Which type of power relies on the use of force or threats?

a) Legitimate power

b) Reward power

c) Expert power

d) Coercive power

None

3. What is the main focus of behavioral theories of leadership?

a) Internal traits of leaders

b) Situational variables

c) The actions of leaders

d) Inherited characteristics

None

4. Which of the following best defines a leadership style?

A) The manner in which a leader approaches and deals with people in the context of one or more tasks to be addressed.

B) The method of communication within an organization.

C) The specific rules and regulations implemented by a leader.

D) The level of authority granted to employees.

None

5. Which leadership style involves individual control over all decisions and little input from group members?

A) Democratic

B) Bureaucratic

C) Laissez-faire

D) Autocratic

None

6. What is a key characteristic of democratic leadership?

A) Limited involvement of team members in decision-making

B) Emphasis on strict hierarchy and centralized control

C) Openness to feedback and suggestions from all levels of the organization

D) Reliance on coercion and fear to motivate employees

None

7. What is the primary goal of teaching health services management (HSM)?

A) To enforce rules and regulations within healthcare organizations.

B) To equip students with skills for effectively managing health services.

C) To limit the influence of leaders within healthcare settings.

D) To prioritize individual achievements over organizational goals.

None

8. What does effectiveness in management refer to?

A) The ability to enforce strict rules and regulations.

B) Maximizing output with minimal resources.

C) Achieving organizational goals and objectives.

D) Treating all stakeholders equally.

None

9. Which management style involves closely supervising and controlling workers, making all important decisions?

A) Directing style

B) Discussing style

C) Delegating style

D) Facilitating style

None

10. Who has the power and authority to enforce decisions as long as followers are willing to be led?

A) Leader

B) Manager

C) Nurse

D) Patient

None

11. Which resource is not considered under the 4M's in management?

A) Manpower

B) Material

C) Medicine

D) Money

None

12. What is the primary focus of the behavioral management theory?

A) Maximizing profits for the organization.

B) Addressing the human dimension of work.

C) Implementing strict rules and regulations.

D) Excluding human behavior from organizational considerations.

None

13. Which theory assumes that employees dislike work and must be directed and controlled?

A) Theory X

B) Theory Y

C) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

D) Fayol's Principles of Management

None

14. What is the primary goal of the Principles of Management according to Fayol?

A) Maximizing individual achievements

B) Increasing bureaucratic processes

C) Improving the functioning of managers

D) Getting things done through others effectively

None

15. What is the primary goal of the planning function in management?

A) Implementing control measures

B) Selecting and training personnel

C) Achieving organizational goals

D) Allocating financial resources

None

16. Which level of hospital management is responsible for strategic planning and execution?

A) Administrative, Managerial, or Top Level

B) Executive or Middle Level

C) Supervisory, Operative, or Lower Level

D) Staffing and Human Resources Level

None

17. Which level of health care in Uganda provides comprehensive specialist services, teaching, and research?

a) District Hospitals

b) Health Center 2 (HCII)

c) National Referral Hospitals

d) Village Health Teams (Health Centre I)

None

18. Which type of leadership power relies on the use of force, threats, or punishment to influence others?

a) Expert power

b) Referent power

c) Reward power

d) Coercive power

None

19. What is the primary characteristic of autocratic leadership?

A) Involves minimal guidance and allows freedom for workers

B) Encourages active participation from all members of the group

C) Prioritizes achieving goals over the well-being of subordinates

D) Emphasizes collaboration and teamwork

None

20. Which leadership style involves a hands-off approach, allowing employees to make decisions and take ownership of their work?

A) Autocratic

B) Democratic

C) Laissez-faire

D) Bureaucratic

None

21. ____________ refers to the process of influencing others with the specific intention of getting them to perform effectively and contribute to meeting organizational goals.

22. ____________ is concerned with maximizing output or achieving desired results with the least amount of resources, time, or effort.

23. ____________ refers to fairness and justice in the distribution of resources, opportunities, and outcomes.

24. __________ states that each individual in the organization must receive orders from only one supervisor to avoid conflicts.

25. _________________ involves selecting the right personnel for the right positions and placing them in roles that match their knowledge and skills.

26. Regional Referral Hospitals in Uganda serve a region of about __________ million people and offer specialist services, teaching, and research.

27. ___________ power in leadership is based on the acceptance of exercised power.

28. __________________ leadership style encourages open communication and transparency?

29. _______________ refers to the process of assigning tasks to different people to spread the workload effectively.

30. You know we cant forget to appreciate you for reaching this far, would free marks work for you?

Yah

Nah

None

31. IMNCI stands for:

a) Integrated Management of Newborn and Child Illnesses

b) International Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses

c) Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses

d) Intensive Management of Newborn and Child Illnesses

None

32. The age group covered under IMNCI includes children up to:

a) 1 year

b) 2 years

c) 3 years

d) 5 years

None

33. The neonatal period refers to the first ________ of life.

a) 7 days

b) 14 days

c) 28 days

d) 1 month

None

34. The success of IMNCI implementation depends on:

a) Training of healthcare workers

b) Availability of medicines and supplies

c) Supportive supervision

d) All of the above

None

35. What is the first step in Integrated Case Management according to IMCI guidelines?

a) Classify

b) Treat

c) Assess

d) Follow-up

None

36. Which color classification in the IMCI guidelines indicates a severe condition needing admission or pre-referral treatment?

a) Yellow

b) Green

c) Pink

d) Blue

None

37. When is the "Follow-Up" step in IMCI necessary?

a) Only for children with severe conditions

b) Only for children with mild conditions

c) For all children with any illness episode

d) Never

None

38. What are the four main symptoms that the health worker must ask about in IMCI?

a) Cough, headache, fatigue, dizziness

b) Rash, stomach pain, sore throat, joint pain

c) Cough, difficult breathing, diarrhea, fever

d) Nausea, vomiting, constipation, earache

None

39. Which of the following is NOT a general danger sign according to IMCI?

a) Unable to breastfeed or drink

b) Persistent cough

c) Convulsions

d) Lethargic or unconscious

None

40. What action should be taken for a child with any general danger sign according to IMCI?

a) Monitor at home

b) Complete assessment and give pre-referral treatment immediately

c) Wait for symptoms to improve on their own

d) Ignore the signs unless they worsen

None

Name

Time's up

Health Service Management Week 1 Exam Read More »

Health Service Management Day 4

Welcome to your Health Service Management Day 4

15 MCQ's Questions and 5 Fill in

October 4, 2025

1. What is the primary purpose of directing in a hospital setting?

A) Setting policies and standards

B) Initiating action

C) Measuring performance

D) Evaluating outcomes

None

2. What is the first step in the process of controlling? a) b) c) d)

A) Measuring actual performance

B) Establishing performance standards

C) Comparing actual performance to standards

D) Taking corrective action

None

3. Which principle of organization emphasizes clear lines of authority from top to bottom?

A) Scalar Principle

B) Unity of Command

C) Responsibility and Authority

D) Delegation of Authority and Responsibility

None

4. Which component of the Ugandan National Health System is responsible for supervising and managing health services at the district level?

A) Ministry of Health (MOH)

B) Health Sub-Districts (HSDs)

C) District Health Officer (DHO)

D) Village Health Teams (VHTs)

None

5. What is the core function of the Ministry of Health (MOH) in Uganda?

A) Providing clinical services

B) Setting policies and standards

C) Conducting health research

D) Mobilizing resources for health care

None

6. What is the importance of delegation in organizing?

A) To create confusion among employees

B) To avoid accountability

C) To empower employees and distribute workload

D) To centralize decision-making authority

None

7. What is the main responsibility of Village Health Teams (VHTs) in Uganda?

A) Managing district health services

B) Providing specialist medical care

C) Conducting health research

D) Facilitating community health promotion and service delivery

None

8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good manager?

A) Emotional stability

B) Indecisiveness

C) Ability to handle conflict

D) Honesty and integrity

None

9. Which component of the Ugandan National Health System oversees the recruitment, deployment, and management of human resources for health?

A) Ministry of Health (MOH)

B) Health Sub-Districts (HSDs)

C) District Health Officer (DHO)

D) Health Service Commission

None

10. Which function of management involves grouping people together in a stable working pattern?

A) Planning

B) Organizing

C) Leading

D) Controlling

None

11. Which level of planning involves short-range plans covering a time span from 1 week to one year?

A) Strategic Planning

B) Intermediate Planning

C) Operational Planning

D) Tactical Planning

None

12. What is the primary role of Health Center 2 (HCII) in Uganda's health care system?

A) Providing preventive and curative services

B) Offering comprehensive specialist care

C) Managing district health services

D) Conducting health research

None

13. What is the primary purpose of job analysis?

A) To increase organizational profits

B) To evaluate employee performance

C) To improve organizational performance and productivity

D) To assess market trends

None

14. Which of the following is NOT a common technique of job analysis?

A) Questionnaire

B) Performance appraisal

C) Individual interview

D) Observation

None

15. What is the purpose of developing job specifications?

A) To describe the tasks involved in a job

B) To outline the qualifications and attributes required for successful job performance

C) To determine employee salaries

D) To evaluate job performance

None

16. ___________ involves selecting the personnel to perform the work and placing them in posts suitable to their qualification.

17. Common techniques of job analysis include questionnaire, checklist, individual interview, and ___________.

Hint

18. Job _________ outline the qualifications, experience, and other attributes required for successful performance in a particular job.

Hint

19. _______________ involves creating a structure that defines the roles and responsibilities of employees within an organization.

20. How about a free mark, a simple incentive?

Yes

Nah

None

Name

Time's up

Health Service Management Day 4 Read More »

Health Service Management Day 3

Welcome to your Health Service Management Day 3

15 MCQ's Questions and 5 Fill in

October 4, 2025

1. What is the first function of management according to Henri Fayol?

A) Staffing

B) Organizing

C) Planning

D) Leading

None

2. What characteristic of a good plan emphasizes that it should cover all aspects necessary to achieve the objectives?

A) Simplicity and Comprehensiveness

B) Clear and Well-Defined Objectives

C) Balance and Flexibility

D) Time-Bound

None

3. Which principle of organization emphasizes clear lines of authority from top to bottom?

A) Scalar Principle

B) Unity of Command

C) Responsibility and Authority

D) Delegation of Authority and Responsibility

None

4. In which type of organization does each person report to only one supervisor?

A) Line organization

B) Line and Staff organization

C) Matrix organization

D) Functional organization

None

5. What is the primary purpose of an organizational chart?

A) To confuse employees

B) To provide a visual representation of the internal structure

C) To hide reporting relationships

D) To discourage communication

None

6. What is the importance of delegation in organizing?

A) To create confusion among employees

B) To avoid accountability

C) To empower employees and distribute workload

D) To centralize decision-making authority

None

7. Which level of planning involves determining the direction in which the organization should be run?

A) Strategic Planning

B) Intermediate Planning

C) Operational Planning

D) Tactical Planning

None

8. Which step in the process of organization involves setting up communication channels and ensuring everyone is working towards the same goals?

A) Establish overall objectives

B) Formulate supporting objectives, policies, and plans

C) Identify and classify activities necessary to accomplish objectives

D) Tie the groups together horizontally and vertically

None

9. Which principle of organization emphasizes that positions of equal ranks must be shown at the same level on the chart?

A) Scalar Principle

B) Principle of Specialization

C) Unity of Command

D) Principle of Clarity

None

10. Which function of management involves grouping people together in a stable working pattern?

A) Planning

B) Organizing

C) Leading

D) Controlling

None

11. Which level of planning involves short-range plans covering a time span from 1 week to one year?

A) Strategic Planning

B) Intermediate Planning

C) Operational Planning

D) Tactical Planning

None

12. According to Theo Haimann, which activities does staffing pertain to?

A) Recruitment, planning, development

B) Training, compensation, appraisal

C) Recruitment, selection, development, compensation

D) Planning, organizing, directing

None

13. What is the primary purpose of job analysis?

A) To increase organizational profits

B) To evaluate employee performance

C) To improve organizational performance and productivity

D) To assess market trends

None

14. Which of the following is NOT a common technique of job analysis?

A) Questionnaire

B) Performance appraisal

C) Individual interview

D) Observation

None

15. What is the purpose of developing job specifications?

A) To describe the tasks involved in a job

B) To outline the qualifications and attributes required for successful job performance

C) To determine employee salaries

D) To evaluate job performance

None

16. ___________ involves selecting the personnel to perform the work and placing them in posts suitable to their qualification.

17. Common techniques of job analysis include questionnaire, checklist, individual interview, and ___________.

Hint

18. Job _________ outline the qualifications, experience, and other attributes required for successful performance in a particular job.

Hint

19. _______________ involves creating a structure that defines the roles and responsibilities of employees within an organization.

20. How about a free mark, a simple incentive?

Yes

Nah

None

Name

Time's up

Health Service Management Day 3 Read More »

Health Service Management Day 2

Welcome to your Health Service Management Day 2

20 MCQ's Questions and 5 Fill in

October 4, 2025

1. What is the primary goal of health service management?

A) Maximizing profits

B) Providing leadership and direction to deliver personal health services

C) Minimizing expenses

D) Promoting individual interests

None

2. Which term refers to the legitimate right granted to a manager or leader by an organization to direct and command subordinates?

A) Power

B) Leadership

C) Authority

D) Control

None

3. Nurse Jane is respected among her peers for her influence and passion for patient well-being. Which term best describes her role?

A) Leader

B) Manager

C) Supervisor

D) Coordinator

None

4. What is the primary difference between effectiveness and efficiency in health service management?

A) Effectiveness focuses on maximizing output, while efficiency emphasizes achieving goals with minimal resources.

B) Effectiveness focuses on achieving organizational objectives, while efficiency focuses on maximizing profits.

C) Effectiveness emphasizes achieving goals with minimal resources, while efficiency focuses on maximizing output.

D) There is no difference between effectiveness and efficiency in health service management.

None

5. What is the role of nurse managers in healthcare facilities according to the American Organization of Nurse Executives (AONE)?

A) Primarily administrative duties

B) Overseeing budget management only

C) Facilitating staff development and ensuring quality care

D) Enforcing regulatory compliance only

None

6. What is the main function of the top level of hospital management?

A) Managing day-to-day operations

B) Providing overall guidance and strategic planning

C) Directly supervising nursing staff

D) Handling budget allocations

None

7. Nurse Manager Sarah gathers her team and encourages them to share ideas and thoughts on improving patient care. Which management style is she employing?

A) Directing

B) Discussing

C) Delegating

D) Autocratic

None

8. What is the main focus of the Directing management style?

A) Encouraging open discussion

B) Giving employees autonomy

C) Providing specific instructions and supervision

D) Delegating tasks and responsibilities

None

9. Which management theory emphasizes a clear hierarchical structure, division of labor, and standardized procedures?

A) Human Relation Theory

B) Contingency Theory

C) Classical Organization Theory

D) Behavioral Science Theory

None

10. Who among the following is considered the founding father of the Bureaucracy Management Theory?

A) Henri Fayol

B) Max Weber

C) Frederick Taylor

D) Abraham Maslow

None

11. Which management theory focuses on applying science to work tasks to save time and reduce excessive movement?

A) Human Relation Theory

B) Contingency Theory

C) Scientific Management Theory

D) Administrative Management Theory

None

12. According to Frederick Taylor, how should workers be compensated to increase productivity?

A) Based on seniority

B) Hourly wages

C) Monthly salary

D) Pay based on output

None

14. According to Douglas McGregor's Theory X, employees:

A) Are self-motivated and find satisfaction in their work.

B) Dislike work and must be directed and controlled.

C) Are naturally inclined to seek responsibility and autonomy.

D) Prefer a supportive work environment with minimal supervision.

None

15. Henri Fayol's principle of "unity of command" suggests that:

A) Employees should receive orders from multiple supervisors.

B) There should be a single supervisor for each employee.

C) Managers should encourage autonomy and self-direction.

D) Communication within the organization should be informal.

None

16. Which principle of management emphasizes the systematic arrangement of things and people in the organization?

A) Division of Work

B) Order

C) Centralization

D) Discipline

None

17. According to Henri Fayol, which of the following is NOT one of the functions of management?

A) Planning

B) Organizing

C) Negotiating

D) Controlling

None

18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Theory Y managers?

A) Delegation of authority

B) Close supervision

C) Motivation through recognition

D) Emphasis on employee development

None

19. The primary goal of all managers, regardless of rank or organization type, is to:

A) Increase productivity

B) Maximize profits

C) Achieve personal success

D) Maintain a positive work culture

None

20. Which of the following is NOT a principle of Frederick Taylor's Scientific Management Theory?

A) Division of labor and responsibility

B) Social interactions and teamwork

C) Time and motion studies

D) Pay based on output

None

21. Henri Fayol identified five key functions of management: planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and ___________.

22. Unity of ___________ suggests that an individual in the organization must receive orders from only one supervisor.

23. _____________theory advocated for paying workers based on their output rather than hours worked.

24. The first function of management is _________

25. How about a free mark?

Yay!

Nah

None

Name

Time's up

Health Service Management Day 2 Read More »

Health Service Management Day 1

Welcome to your Health Service Management Day 1

20 MCQ's Questions

October 4, 2025

1. What is the primary goal of health service management?

A) Maximizing profits

B) Providing leadership and direction to deliver personal health services

C) Minimizing expenses

D) Promoting individual interests

None

2. Which term refers to the legitimate right granted to a manager or leader by an organization to direct and command subordinates?

A) Power

B) Leadership

C) Authority

D) Control

None

3. Nurse Jane is respected among her peers for her influence and passion for patient well-being. Which term best describes her role?

A) Leader

B) Manager

C) Supervisor

D) Coordinator

None

4. What is the primary difference between effectiveness and efficiency in health service management?

A) Effectiveness focuses on maximizing output, while efficiency emphasizes achieving goals with minimal resources.

B) Effectiveness focuses on achieving organizational objectives, while efficiency focuses on maximizing profits.

C) Effectiveness emphasizes achieving goals with minimal resources, while efficiency focuses on maximizing output.

D) There is no difference between effectiveness and efficiency in health service management.

None

5. What is the role of nurse managers in healthcare facilities according to the American Organization of Nurse Executives (AONE)?

A) Primarily administrative duties

B) Overseeing budget management only

C) Facilitating staff development and ensuring quality care

D) Enforcing regulatory compliance only

None

6. What is the main function of the top level of hospital management?

A) Managing day-to-day operations

B) Providing overall guidance and strategic planning

C) Directly supervising nursing staff

D) Handling budget allocations

None

7. Nurse Manager Sarah gathers her team and encourages them to share ideas and thoughts on improving patient care. Which management style is she employing?

A) Directing

B) Discussing

C) Delegating

D) Autocratic

None

8. What is the main focus of the Directing management style?

A) Encouraging open discussion

B) Giving employees autonomy

C) Providing specific instructions and supervision

D) Delegating tasks and responsibilities

None

9. Which management theory emphasizes a clear hierarchical structure, division of labor, and standardized procedures?

A) Human Relation Theory

B) Contingency Theory

C) Classical Organization Theory

D) Behavioral Science Theory

None

10. Who among the following is considered the founding father of the Bureaucracy Management Theory?

A) Henri Fayol

B) Max Weber

C) Frederick Taylor

D) Abraham Maslow

None

11. Which management theory focuses on applying science to work tasks to save time and reduce excessive movement?

A) Human Relation Theory

B) Contingency Theory

C) Scientific Management Theory

D) Administrative Management Theory

None

12. According to Frederick Taylor, how should workers be compensated to increase productivity?

A) Based on seniority

B) Hourly wages

C) Monthly salary

D) Pay based on output

None

13. The Hawthorne studies conducted by Elton Mayo highlighted the importance of:

A) Physical factors in the workplace

B) Formal communication channels

C) Informal social interactions

D) Strict hierarchical structures

None

14. According to Douglas McGregor's Theory X, employees:

A) Are self-motivated and find satisfaction in their work.

B) Dislike work and must be directed and controlled.

C) Are naturally inclined to seek responsibility and autonomy.

D) Prefer a supportive work environment with minimal supervision.

None

15. Henri Fayol's principle of "unity of command" suggests that:

A) Employees should receive orders from multiple supervisors.

B) There should be a single supervisor for each employee.

C) Managers should encourage autonomy and self-direction.

D) Communication within the organization should be informal.

None

16. Which principle of management emphasizes the systematic arrangement of things and people in the organization?

A) Division of Work

B) Order

C) Centralization

D) Discipline

None

17. According to Henri Fayol, which of the following is NOT one of the functions of management?

A) Planning

B) Organizing

C) Negotiating

D) Controlling

None

18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Theory Y managers?

A) Delegation of authority

B) Close supervision

C) Motivation through recognition

D) Emphasis on employee development

None

19. The primary goal of all managers, regardless of rank or organization type, is to:

A) Increase productivity

B) Maximize profits

C) Achieve personal success

D) Maintain a positive work culture

None

20. Which of the following is NOT a principle of Frederick Taylor's Scientific Management Theory?

A) Division of labor and responsibility

B) Social interactions and teamwork

C) Time and motion studies

D) Pay based on output

None

Name

Time's up

Health Service Management Day 1 Read More »