Quizzes & Surveys - Page 7 of 13

Health Service Management Day 8

Welcome to your Health Service Management Day 8

15 MCQ's Questions and 5 Fill ins

June 18, 2025

1. What is the most common type of conflict in the workplace?

a) Intrapersonal conflict

b) Interpersonal conflict

c) Social/Inter-group conflict

d) Personal conflict

None

2. When does conflict become a problem?

a) After failing to resolve it

b) When it first emerges

c) When parties acknowledge it

d) When it escalates

None

3. What is the final stage of conflict resolution?

a) De-escalation

b) Post-conflict peacebuilding

c) Settlement/Resolution

d) Conflict Emergency

None

4. What is the purpose of the Interest-Based Relational Approach (IBRA) in conflict resolution?

a) To prioritize personal interests over relational concerns

b) To find solutions that meet the needs of everyone involved while preserving relationships

c) To escalate conflicts to higher levels of authority for resolution

d) To emphasize competition and win-lose outcomes

None

5. Which conflict resolution style involves taking a firm stand and operating from a position of power?

a) Collaboration

b) Avoidance

c) Competition

d) Accommodation

None

6. What is the primary goal of the conflict resolution process?

a) To assert dominance

b) To avoid confrontation

c) To find mutually satisfactory solutions

d) To escalate conflicts

None

7. Which conflict resolution style involves seeking to evade the conflict entirely?

a) Collaboration

b) Accommodation

c) Avoidance

d) Competition

None

8. What is the first step in the conflict resolution process?

a) Gather information

b) Set the scene

c) Agree about the problem

d) Get possible solutions

None

9. What is the definition of a team?

a) A large group of people with diverse skills

b) A small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common purpose

c) A group of individuals with identical skills

d) A collection of individuals with competing interests

None

10. Which stage of Tuckman's model involves reflecting on the team's achievements and learning from the experience?

a) Forming

b) Storming

c) Norming

d) Adjourning

None

11. What is the focus of team planning?

a) Building relationships

b) Achieving common goals

c) Managing conflicts

d) Establishing trust

None

12. Which of the following statements accurately differentiates a team from a group?

(a) Teams have a designated leader, while groups share leadership responsibilities.

(b) Teams work independently, while groups collaborate towards a shared goal.

(d) Teams operate within organizational boundaries, while groups work beyond them.

None

13. A manager gives an employee a high rating in all areas because they are impressed by the employee's friendly personality and positive attitude. This is an example of which bias?

a) First Impression

b) Halo Effect

c) Spillover Effect

d) Excessive Stiffness or Lenience

None

14. Which leadership style encourages open communication and transparency?

a) Autocratic

b) Democratic

c) Laissez-faire

d) Bureaucratic

None

15. What do liabilities refer to in business?

a) Financial obligations of the business

b) Resources owned by the business

c) Payments to shareholders

d) Fixed assets of the business

None

16. Accountability, Authority and ______________ are the three elements of delegation.

17. __________ conflict is the first stage of conflict.

18. In team building, The process of putting the structure of the team together is at which stage?

19. ______________________ is the practice of identifying and handling a conflict in a sensible, fair and efficient manner.

20. A formal document issued by an organization to a selected candidate, confirming their appointment to a specific position is called ______________-.

Name

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Health Service Management Day 8 Read More »

Health Service Management Day 7

Welcome to your Health Service Management Day 7

20 MCQ's Questions

June 18, 2025

1. What is the purpose of establishing performance standards in a performance appraisal system?

a) To create unnecessary bureaucracy

b) To ensure employees are working towards organizational goals

c) To limit employee development opportunities

d) To discourage feedback and communication

None

2. Which of the following characteristics is essential for an effective appraisal system?

a) Ambiguity

b) Subjectivity

c) Reliability and validity

d) Lack of communication

None

3. What is the primary objective of performance appraisal?

a) To punish employees for poor performance

b) To develop employees as valuable resources

c) To discourage employee feedback

d) To create competition among employees

None

4. Which method of performance appraisal emphasizes rating individual personality traits?

a) Ranking Method

b) Critical Incident Method

c) Graphic Rating Scale Method

d) Traditional Methods

None

5. Which method of performance appraisal involves comparing each employee with every other employee, one at a time?

a) Ranking Method

b) Paired Comparison Method

c) Grading Method

d) Checklist Method

None

6. What is a potential disadvantage of over-delegation?

a) Poor decision-making

b) Increased workload for managers

c) Lack of control

d) Lack of trust among team members

None

7. What are the five rights to delegation from the perspective of both nursing service administrator and staff nurse?

a) The Right place, time, direction, supervision, and communication

b) The Right person, task, place, supervision, and communication

c) The Right person, task, circumstance, direction/communication, and supervision

d) The Right skill, task, time, place, and supervision

None

8. What is a strategy for effective delegation?

a) Micromanaging delegated tasks

b) Assigning tasks randomly without considering skill levels

c) Empowering the delegate with authority and autonomy

d) Keeping the delegate uninformed about task objectives

None

9. What is the main focus of the 360-degree feedback appraisal method?

a) Feedback from peers only

b) Feedback from supervisors only

c) Feedback from multiple sources

d) Feedback from self-assessment only

None

10. In which method of performance appraisal is each employee compared with every other employee, one at a time?

a) Ranking Method

b) Graphic Rating Scale Method

c) Checklist Method

d) Peer Review Method

None

11. What is a potential disadvantage of poor decision-making during the delegation process?

a) Increased workload for managers

b) Lack of trust among team members

c) Lack of control

d) Poor quality of work

None

12. What is a strategy for overcoming resistance to delegation?

a) Micromanaging delegated tasks

b) Providing unclear instructions

c) Involving employees in decision-making

d) Limiting communication with delegates

None

13. What defines upward delegation?

a) Seeking assistance or guidance from a higher authority

b) Delegating tasks to someone with less authority

c) Delegating tasks based on specific conditions

d) Delegating tasks to oneself

None

14. What distinguishes full delegation from other types of delegation?

a) Assigning complete authority and responsibility for a task

b) Sharing authority and responsibility with others

c) Delegating based on specific conditions or circumstances

d) Delegating informally without official procedures

None

15. When does conditional delegation occur?

a) When authority and responsibility are granted informally

b) When authority and responsibility are granted based on specific conditions

c) When authority and responsibility are shared equally among team members

d) When authority and responsibility are delegated to oneself

None

16. What distinguishes formal delegation from informal delegation?

a) Formal delegation is based on trust and relationships

b) Formal delegation follows established procedures and hierarchy

c) Informal delegation involves official documentation

d) Informal delegation is contingent upon meeting specific criteria

None

17. What should be the manager's approach when mistakes occur during delegation?

a) Punish the delegate for the mistakes

b) Offer support and guidance to the delegate

c) Reassign the task to another person

d) Ignore the mistakes and move on

None

18. According to Tuckman's stages of group development, what happens during the storming stage?

a) Conflicts and disagreements arise

b) The team reaches peak performance

c) Norms and rules are established

d) The team completes its project

None

19. What is the focus of team planning?

a) Building relationships

b) Achieving common goals

c) Managing conflicts

d) Establishing trust

None

20. Which stage of Tuckman's model involves reflecting on the team's achievements and learning from the experience?

a) Forming

b) Storming

c) Norming

d) Adjourning

None

21. _________________are all the materials available in our environment which are technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally sustainable and help us to satisfy our needs and wants.

22. The first function of management is _____________?

23. Collecting information about specific job operations and responsibilities is termed as ___________________?

24. ___________________ is the act of formally selecting or assigning a person to a particular position or role.

25. The process by which an employee’s contribution to the organization during a specified period of time is assessed is termed as ____________________?

Name

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Health Service Management Day 6

Welcome to your Health Service Management Day 6

20 MCQ's Questions

June 18, 2025

1. What is Human Resource Management (HRM)?

a) Managing the financial resources of an organization

b) Managing the workforce and employment relationship within an organization

c) Managing the marketing activities of an organization

d) Managing the production processes of an organization

None

2. Which of the following is a primary function of Human Resource Management?

a) Marketing

b) Financial planning

c) Employee recruitment and selection

d) Inventory management

None

3. Which factor is NOT considered in HR planning?

a) Economic factors

b) Social factors

c) Technological factors

d) Marketing strategies

None

4. What is the primary goal of HR planning?

a) Maximizing profits

b) Minimizing employee turnover

c) Ensuring the right number of qualified employees at the right time

d) Achieving sales targets

None

5. What does HR forecasting involve?

a) Predicting future economic trends

b) Estimating future demand for and supply of human resources

c) Forecasting market demand for products

d) Analyzing competitors' strategies

None

6. Which function is NOT part of the operative functions of HRM?

a) Recruitment

b) Job analysis

c) Performance appraisal

d) Organizing

None

7. What is the primary purpose of job analysis in HRM?

a) Evaluating employee performance

b) Determining future workforce needs

c) Identifying the skills and requirements of specific jobs

d) Setting organizational goals

None

8. Which of the following is NOT a step in the human resource planning process?

a) Assessing human resources

b) Analyzing competitors' strategies

c) Demand forecasting

d) Matching demand and supply

None

9. What is the first step typically taken when a decision is made to recruit new employees?

a) Conducting job analysis

b) Drafting job descriptions

c) Advertising job vacancies

d) Interviewing candidates

None

10. What is the purpose of job descriptions in the recruitment process?

a) To determine employee benefits

b) To provide a brief overview of the organization's history

c) To describe the duties and responsibilities of a job position

d) To outline the company's mission and vision

None

11. Which of the following is an advantage of internal recruitment?

a) Limited talent pool

b) Increased risk

c) Improved employee morale

d) May not attract the best candidates

None

12. What is an example of external recruitment source?

a) Promotion from within

b) Employee transfer

c) Campus recruitment

d) Re-employment of ex-employees

None

13. What is the purpose of an appointment letter in the recruitment process?

a) To advertise job vacancies

b) To describe the duties and responsibilities of a job position

c) To confirm a candidate's appointment to a specific position

d) To conduct background checks on potential candidates

None

14. What is a fixed-term contract appointment?

a) A short-term appointment with no fixed end date

b) A long-term appointment with a specific duration

c) A short-term appointment with a maximum duration of 3 months

d) A temporary appointment for specific projects or tasks

None

15. What is the purpose of induction and orientation programs in the recruitment process?

a) To select suitable candidates for job positions

b) To provide training and development opportunities

c) To help new employees fit into the organization smoothly

d) To conduct performance appraisals

None

16. Which of the following is a concern that new employees may have during the induction and socialization process?

a) Knowledge about the company's history

b) Anxiety about fitting into the new environment

c) Uncertainty about payroll procedures

d) Awareness of workplace safety protocols

None

17. What type of information is typically conveyed during induction and orientation programs?

a) Personal and family problems

b) Detailed presentation of the organization's policies and benefits

c) Performance expectations and key performance indicators

d) Job-specific information

None

18. What is the primary advantage of a company over a partnership?

a) Limited liability

b) Easy formation

c) Poor decision-making

d) Overwork and stress

None

19. Which document serves as the foundation of a company's constitution?

a) Partnership deed

b) Memorandum of Association

c) Articles of Association

d) Certificate of Incorporation

None

20. What is the role of a dormant partner in a partnership?

a) Actively participate in day-to-day operations

b) Contribute capital and share profits

c) Only contribute capital and share profits or losses

d) Allow the firm to use their name as a partner

None

Name

Time's up

Health Service Management Day 6 Read More »

Pediatrics Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Pediatrics Week 1 Exam

40 Questions, 30 MCQ's and 10 Fill-in's.

June 18, 2025

1. What is the primary difference between hyperthyroidism and thyrotoxicosis?

a) The level of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream

b) The presence of symptoms such as weight loss and rapid heartbeat

c) The anatomical location of the thyroid gland

d) The autoimmune involvement in thyroid dysfunction

None

2. Which term is used to describe the autoimmune disorder that is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

a) Hypothyroidism

b) Cretinism

c) Graves' disease

d) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

None

3. Which term describes puberty occurring at an unusually early age?

a) Delayed puberty

b) Precocious puberty

c) Adolescent puberty

d) Normal puberty

None

4. Which type of precocious puberty is more common overall and characterized by activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?

a) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)-dependent

b) GnRH-independent

c) Central precocious puberty

d) Peripheral precocious puberty

None

5. What is the term for the life-threatening condition characterized by an extreme exacerbation of hyperthyroidism symptoms?

a) Graves' disease

b) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

c) Thyroid storm

d) Cretinism

None

6. What is the term for the clinical state characterized by acute onset of hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, edema, and oliguria following an infective illness?

a) Nephrotic syndrome

b) Nephritic syndrome

c) STI

d) Chronic kidney disease

None

7. Which condition is characterized by a fluid collection within the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum or along the spermatic cord?

a) Testicular torsion

b) Epididymitis

c) Hydrocele

d) Varicocele

None

8. Which condition results in itchy, red, swollen, and cracked skin, often accompanied by clear fluid oozing from affected areas?

a) Atopic dermatitis

b) Psoriasis

c) Contact dermatitis

d) Eczema

None

9. Which type of hydrocele occurs when the processus vaginalis remains open and communicates with the peritoneal cavity?

a) Infantile hydrocele

b) Congenital hydrocele

c) Encysted hydrocele of the cord

d) Vaginal hydrocele

None

10. Which term refers to the condition characterized by the protrusion of the eyeball, unique to hyperthyroidism caused by Graves' disease?

a) Exophthalmos

b) Myxedema

c) Cretinism

d) Thyroid storm

None

11. Which of the following best defines the term "atopic"?

a) A skin condition characterized by reddish swelling

b) A type of eczema that causes itchy and inflamed patches of skin

c) A genetic predisposition to allergic hypersensitivity reactions

d) A condition affecting the top layer of the skin

None

12. What is the primary characteristic of congenital cataracts?

a) Clouding of the cornea

b) Opacity of the lens of the eye

c) Retinal detachment

d) Optic nerve compression

None

13. Which type of congenital cataract tends to produce more visual impairment due to its size and position?

a) Anterior polar cataract

b) Posterior polar cataract

c) Lamellar cataract

d) Coronary cataract

None

14. Which etiological factor is associated with galactosemia and reversible oil droplet cataracts?

a) Genetic cataract

b) Metabolic cataract

c) Traumatic cataract

d) Secondary cataract

None

15. What complication of congenital cataracts is characterized by the buildup of fluid between layers of the retina?

a) Cloudy vision

b) Lazy eye (amblyopia)

c) Glaucoma

d) Cystoid macular edema

None

16. What condition can occur if there is weaker vision in one eye after congenital cataract surgery?

a) Retinal detachment

b) Squint (strabismus)

c) Pupil abnormalities

d) Infection

None

17. What is the primary aim of surgical management for congenital cataracts?

a) To lower intraocular pressure

b) To replace the cloudy lens and restore clear vision

c) To repair retinal detachment

d) To create a new drainage channel for aqueous humor

None

18. Which diagnostic test involves shining a bright direct ophthalmoscope into both eyes to estimate the size and location of the cataract within the visual axis. ?

a) Ultrasound of the posterior pole

b) Slit lamp examination

c) Intraocular pressure measurement

d) Red reflex test

None

19. What is the main cause of damage to the optic nerve in glaucoma?

a) Excessive tear production

b) Abnormal corneal thickness

c) Elevated intraocular pressure

d) Retinal detachment

None

20. Which of the following is a classic triad of symptoms associated with congenital glaucoma?

a) Blurred vision, eye pain, and halos around lights

b) Watering (epiphora), photophobia, and blepharospasm

c) Headaches, nausea, and vomiting

d) Double vision, floaters, and flashes of light

None

21. What is visual impairment often defined as?

a) Best corrected visual acuity of better than 20/40

b) Best corrected visual acuity of worse than 20/60

c) Best corrected visual acuity of worse than 20/20

d) Best corrected visual acuity of better than 20/60

None

22. Which of the following is NOT a cause of visual impairment?

a) Trauma

b) Retinitis pigmentosa

c) Normal-tension glaucoma

d) High blood pressure

None

23. What is the purpose of the Snellen test?

a) To measure intraocular pressure

b) To assess the integrity of the visual field

c) To evaluate the movement of the eyeballs

d) To measure visual acuity

None

24. Which of the following is NOT a common cause or trigger of skin allergies?

a) Insect Bites and Stings

b) Dust Mites

c) Dairy

d) Cotton Clothing

None

25. Which type of allergen can cause symptoms such as gastrointestinal disturbances and vomiting?

a) Inhalant allergens

b) Ingestant allergens

c) Injectant allergens

d) Contactant allergens

None

26. What is the first-line antibiotic for treating pneumonia in children aged 12 months up to 3 years?

a) Oral Amoxicillin

b) Oral Ciprofloxacin

c) Intravenous Gentamicin

d) Oral Erythromycin

None

27. What is the immediate action to be taken for a child with severe pneumonia or very severe disease before referral to a hospital?

a) Administer oral rehydration solution (ORS)

b) Administer the first dose of Ampicillin or Gentamicin or both

c) Apply a warm compress to the child's chest

d) Give antipyretics to reduce fever

None

28. How should a healthcare provider manage dehydration using Plan C for a child with severe dehydration?

a) Administer oral rehydration solution (ORS) and encourage breastfeeding

b) Set up an intravenous (IV) line immediately and give IV fluids rapidly

c) Provide dietary management and hygiene education to the caregiver

d) Give the child antibiotics and antipyretics

None

29. A four-month-old child named Amina was brought to the health post because she had had diarrhoea for five days. She did not have danger signs and she was not coughing. However, Amina was restless and irritable every time the health worker touched her and would not settle even when her mother tried to soothe her. The only time she was calm was when her mother was breastfeeding her. Amina was able to feed strongly. The health worker assessed the child’s diarrhoea. She recorded the following signs: Restlessness Eagerly to drink Amina had two signs from the yellow row. Therefore, the health worker classified Amina's dehydration as:

a) Severe Dehydration

b) Some Dehydration

c) No Dehydration

d) Very Severe Dehydration

None

30. How far now? Are you some how ready for Paed?

At least somewhere

Hahaha, you want to laugh!

None

31. What condition is characterized by excessive thyroid hormone in blood, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, nervousness, and rapid heart rate?

32. What is the term for a fluid-filled sac in the scrotum that surrounds the testicle?

33. What is the medical term for undescended testicles, a condition where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum?

34. What is the term for a protrusion of tissue, such as part of the intestine, through a weak spot in the abdominal wall?

35. What is the name of the antibiotic commonly used to treat dysentry in IMCI?

36. What is the term for a clouding of the lens of the eye that can cause blurry vision?

37. What is the presence of blood in the urine called as associated with nephritic syndrome?

38. ________________ chart is the name of the eye chart used to measure visual acuity?

39. Presence of lipids in urine is called ___________?

40. A child who is restless and eargerly drinks is classified as ___________ dehydration.

Name

Time's up

Pediatrics Week 1 Exam Read More »

Pediatrics Day 7 Quiz

Welcome to your Pediatrics Day 7 Quiz

15 MCQ's and 5 fil ins

June 18, 2025

1. What is a hydrocele?

a) Accumulation of blood within the testicular sac

b) Accumulation of air within the testicular sac

c) Accumulation of serous fluid within the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum

d) Accumulation of urine within the scrotal region

None

2. Which muscle contracts to give the scrotum its wrinkled appearance?

a) Cremaster muscle

b) Dartos muscle

c) Sphincter muscle

d) Tensor fasciae latae

None

3. What is the main function of the scrotum?

a) To produce sperm

b) To store urine

c) To protect the testes and keep them at a temperature below the normal body temperature

d) To regulate blood flow to the testes

None

4. Which type of hydrocele is often found in newborns and may resolve over time?

a) Primary hydrocele

b) Secondary hydrocele

c) Communicating hydrocele

d) Non-communicating hydrocele

None

5. Which type of hydrocele is characterized by the sac not closing, allowing fluid to flow back into the abdomen?

a) Primary hydrocele

b) Secondary hydrocele

c) Communicating hydrocele

d) Non-communicating hydrocele

None

6. What is the most common cause of secondary hydroceles?

a) Testicular cancer

b) Testicular trauma

c) Acute or chronic epididymo-orchitis

d) Testicular torsion

None

7. Which type of hydrocele occurs when the processus vaginalis remains patent only around the testes?

a) Congenital hydrocele

b) Infantile hydrocele

c) Encysted hydrocele of the cord

d) Vaginal hydrocele

None

8. What is the recommended method of diagnosing a primary hydrocele?

a) Ultrasound imaging

b) Blood tests

c) Transillumination

d) MRI scan

None

9. Which approach is mostly preferred for pediatric hydroceles during surgical management?

a) Scrotal approach

b) Inguinal approach

c) Sclerotherapy

d) Hydrocelectomy

None

10. What is the recommended management for hydroceles appearing in the first year of life?

a) Observation only

b) Aspiration and sclerotherapy

c) Surgical removal

d) Antibiotic therapy

None

11. What is eczema?

A) A bacterial skin infection

B) A fungal skin condition

C) A dermatologic problem characterized by inflamed, itchy, red, cracked, and rough patches of skin

D) A type of skin cancer

None

12. What are the common symptoms of eczema in infants?

A) Rashes on the back and buttocks

B) Dry and scaly skin that spans the entire body

C) Rashes behind the creases of elbows or knees, neck, wrists, ankles, and buttock-leg creases

D) Redness and inflammation of the cheeks and scalp

None

13. Which of the following is NOT a factor believed to contribute to the development of eczema?

A) Genetic factors

B) Immune system dysfunction

C) Exposure to extreme temperatures

D) Environmental exposures

None

14. What type of hypersensitivity reactions are involved in the pathophysiology of atopic dermatitis?

A) Type I and Type III

B) Type II and Type IV

C) Type I and Type IV

D) Type II and Type III

None

15. Which of the following is NOT a preventive measure for managing atopic dermatitis?

A) Avoiding triggers

B) Taking hot showers

C) Daily bathing and moisturizing

D) Wearing loose, cotton clothing

None

16. A hydrocele is characterized by the accumulation of _______________ fluid within the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum or along the spermatic cord.

17. ______________ hydrocele occurs when the processus vaginalis remains patent only around the testes.

18. Eczema, also known as __________ eczema, is a dermatologic problem characterized by inflamed, itchy, red, cracked, and rough patches of skin.

19. Xerosis also means ______________ skin.

20. Free mark?

Yes

Nah, thanks.

None

Name

Time's up

Pediatrics Day 7 Quiz Read More »

Pediatrics Day 5 Quiz

Welcome to your Pediatrics Day 5 Quiz

20 MCQ's and 5 fil ins

June 18, 2025

1. What is thyrotoxicosis?

a) Excessive production of thyroid hormones

b) Underactive thyroid gland

c) Autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid

d) Benign growth in the thyroid gland

None

2. Where is the thyroid gland located?

a) Upper portion of the neck

b) Behind the ears

c) Lower portion of the neck, in front of the larynx and trachea

d) In the abdomen

None

3. What is the primary function of the thyroid gland?

a) Regulation of blood sugar levels

b) Production of insulin

c) Regulation of growth and metabolism

d) Digestion of food

None

4. Which autoimmune disorder is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

a) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

b) Graves' disease

c) Cretinism

d) Myxedema

None

5. What is the purpose of radioactive iodine uptake testing?

a) To measure thyroid hormone levels

b) To assess overall thyroid structure and function

c) To visualize thyroid nodules

d) To evaluate thyroid gland inflammation

None

6. Which condition involves a life-threatening exacerbation of hyperthyroid symptoms?

a) Thyroid storm

b) Goiter

c) Myxedema

d) Thyroiditis

None

7. Which medication is commonly used to lower heart rate in hyperthyroidism?

a) Methimazole

b) Levothyroxine

c) Propranolol

d) Lugols iodine

None

8. What is the characteristic eye symptom associated with Graves' disease?

a) Eyelid retraction ("stare")

b) Double vision

c) Lid-lag (von Graefe's sign)

d) Exophthalmos/Proptosis

None

9. What is the primary purpose of monitoring vital signs every 2 hours post-thyroidectomy?

a) To assess for signs of thyroid storm

b) To detect early signs of hemorrhage

c) To monitor fluid balance

d) All of the above

None

10. What is the defining feature of nephrotic syndrome?

A) Hypertension

B) Hematuria

C) Proteinuria

D) Oliguria

None

11. What is the main cause of edema in nephrotic syndrome?

A) Sodium retention

B) Potassium excess

C) Water intoxication

D) Hypoalbuminemia

None

12. Which type of glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

B) Membranous glomerulonephritis (MGN)

C) Minimal change disease (MCD)

D) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)

None

13. What is the characteristic pattern of edema in nephrotic syndrome?

A) Localized to the lower extremities

B) Generalized, involving the face, abdomen, and limbs

C) Limited to the periorbital region

D) Absent in most cases

None

14. Which medication is commonly used to lower cholesterol levels in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

A) Aspirin

B) Lisinopril

C) Atorvastatin

D) Prednisone

None

15. What is the most common cause of nephritic syndrome in children?

A) IgA nephropathy

B) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

C) Lupus nephritis

D) Goodpasture syndrome

None

16. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of nephritic syndrome?

A) Massive proteinuria

B) Hematuria

C) Hypertension

D) Oliguria

None

17. What is the primary cause of hematuria in nephritic syndrome?

A) Glomerular inflammation

B) Tubular dysfunction

C) Interstitial fibrosis

D) Renal artery stenosis

None

18. What is the typical appearance of urine in nephritic syndrome?

A) Foamy or bubbly

B) Clear and colorless

C) Smoky or tea-colored

D) Milky or cloudy

None

19. What is the primary treatment for nephritic syndrome?

A) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

B) Corticosteroids

C) Diuretics

D) Anticoagulants

None

20. Which immunoglobulin is commonly deposited in the glomeruli in membranous glomerulonephritis?

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgM

D) IgE

None

21. The primary function of the thyroid gland is to produce and release ________ hormones into the bloodstream.

22. Exophthalmos, also called ________, is a characteristic eye symptom associated with Graves' disease, characterized by protrusion of the eyeballs from the eye sockets.

23. ______________, a complication of hyperthyroidism, is characterized by decreased bone density and an increased risk of fractures.

24. The drainage tube is typically removed not later than ________ hours after thyroidectomy.

25. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by ________ in the urine.

26. How was it?

Fair

Hard!!

None

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Pediatrics Day 4

Welcome to your Pediatrics Day 4

20 MCQ's

June 18, 2025

1. What is the literal meaning of "Cerebral Palsy"?

a) Brain injury

b) Brain paralysis

c) Brain disorder

d) Brain damage

None

2. What are the three important parts of the brain associated with cerebral palsy?

a) Cerebrum, medulla oblongata, hippocampus

b) Cortex, cerebellum, basal ganglia

c) Basal ganglia, hypothalamus, brain stem

d) Amygdala, corpus callosum, hippocampus

None

3. What is the most common type of cerebral palsy, affecting over 70% of cases?

a) Athetoid Cerebral Palsy

b) Ataxic Cerebral Palsy

c) Spastic Cerebral Palsy

d) Mixed Cerebral Palsy

None

4. What type of tremor is most commonly associated with ataxic cerebral palsy?

a) Resting tremor

b) Essential tremor

c) Intention tremor

d) Orthostatic tremor

None

4. Which type of therapy helps children with cerebral palsy learn everyday tasks and improve fine motor skills?

a) Physical therapy

b) Occupational therapy

c) Speech therapy

d) Behavioral therapy

None

5. What medication is commonly used to alleviate muscle stiffness (spasticity) in individuals with cerebral palsy?

a) Acetaminophen

b) Ibuprofen

c) Baclofen

d) Aspirin

None

6. What surgical procedure might be recommended to reduce chronic pain or spasticity in cerebral palsy?

a) Appendectomy

b) Rhinoplasty

c) Selective dorsal rhizotomy (SDR)

d) Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

None

7. What is the aim of management for individuals with cerebral palsy?

a) To cure the condition completely

b) To maximize the child’s movements and overall function

c) To prevent the condition from progressing

d) To provide palliative care

None

8. What condition is commonly associated with individuals with cerebral palsy due to reduced bone density and limited mobility?

a) Osteoporosis

b) Osteoarthritis

c) Rheumatoid arthritis

d) Scoliosis

None

9. What is the primary hormone involved in glucose metabolism?

A) Insulin

B) Glucagon

C) Epinephrine

D) Cortisol

None

10. Which of the following conditions is characterized by high blood sugar levels over a prolonged period?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Hyperglycemia

C) Glycosuria

D) Polyuria

None

11. What are the three cardinal clinical features of diabetes mellitus?

A) Hypoglycemia, Polydipsia, Polyphagia

B) Hypertension, Hyperlipidemia, Glycosuria

C) Hyperglycemia, Glycosuria, Polyuria

D) Bradycardia, Hypotension, Diaphoresis

None

12. What is the main cause of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)?

A) Insulin resistance

B) Pancreatic beta-cell destruction

C) Obesity

D) Liver dysfunction

None

13. What is the term for a condition that occurs when blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough for a diagnosis of type 2 DM?

A) Hyperglycemia

B) Ketoacidosis

C) Prediabetes

D) Gestational Diabetes

None

15. What are the classic symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A) Increased thirst and urination

B) Weight gain and fatigue

C) Cold and pale skin

D) Sweating and trembling

None

16. What diagnostic criteria are used to identify diabetes mellitus based on fasting plasma glucose level?

A) ≥ 6.1 mmol/l (110 mg/dl)

B) ≥ 7.0 mmol/l (126 mg/dl)

C) ≥ 11.1 mmol/l (200 mg/dl)

D) ≤ 5.0 mmol/l (90 mg/dl)

None

17. What is the initial treatment for correcting acidosis and hyperglycemia in DKA?

A) Fluid replacement with 0.9% saline

B) Administration of potassium supplementation

C) Infusion of regular insulin

D) Correction of electrolyte imbalances

None

18. What diagnostic criteria are used for diagnosing DKA?

A) Hyperglycemia, ketonemia, and metabolic alkalosis

B) Hypoglycemia, acidosis, and normal ketone levels

C) Hyperglycemia, ketonuria , ketonemia, and metabolic acidosis

D) Hyperglycemia, ketonuria, and respiratory alkalosis

None

19. What is the goal of fluid replacement therapy in the management of DKA?

A) To correct electrolyte imbalances

B) To prevent dehydration and hypovolemic shock

C) To induce diuresis and reduce blood glucose levels

D) To replenish glycogen stores in the liver

None

20. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A) Excessive insulin production leading to hypoglycemia

B) Insulin resistance resulting in hyperglycemia

C) Insulin deficiency causing fat breakdown and ketone production

D) Abnormal glucose uptake by body cells

None

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Pediatrics Day 2 Quiz

Welcome to your Pediatrics Day 2 Quiz

25 Questions. 20 MCQs and 5 Fill in

June 18, 2025

1. What is intersex?

A. A condition where a person has both male and female reproductive organs.

B. A condition where reproductive or sexual anatomy doesn't align with traditional definitions of "male" or "female."

C. A genetic disorder causing infertility.

D. A hormonal imbalance leading to ambiguous genitalia.

None

2. Which of the following is NOT a cause of intersex conditions?

A. Genetic abnormalities

B. Hormonal imbalances

C. Environmental factors

D. Lack of emotional support

None

3. Which chromosome configuration is associated with Klinefelter syndrome?

A. 46, XY

B. 47, XXY

C. 46, XX

D. 45, XO

None

4. What is precocious puberty?

A. Puberty occurring at the usual age

B. Puberty occurring at an unusually early age

C. Puberty occurring after the age of 13

D. Puberty occurring after the age of 10

None

5. What is the most common type of precocious puberty?

A. Peripheral Precocious Puberty

B. Central Precocious Puberty

C. Isosexual precocious puberty

D. Heterosexual precocious puberty

None

6. What are the Tanner Stages used to assess in puberty?

A. Hormone levels

B. Bone density

C. Physical changes

D. Cognitive development

None

7. Which part of the brain is primarily affected in spastic cerebral palsy?

a) Basal ganglia

b) Cerebellum

c) Cortex

d) Hypothalamus

None

8. What is the main difference between partial and generalized seizures?

A. Partial seizures affect both hemispheres of the brain, while generalized seizures affect only one hemisphere.

B. Partial seizures involve abnormal electrical discharge in one area of the brain, while generalized seizures involve diffuse abnormal electrical activity in both hemispheres.

C. Partial seizures always result in loss of consciousness, while generalized seizures do not.

D. Generalized seizures always begin with an aura, while partial seizures do not.

None

9. What is the most common cause of seizures in infants aged before 2 years?

A. Head trauma

B. Fever

C. Metabolic disorders

D. Birth injuries

None

10. What is the primary cause of peripheral precocious puberty?

a) Tumors in the hypothalamus

b) Overproduction of cortisol

c) Autonomous production of sex steroids

d) Genetic mutations in the pituitary gland

None

11. What hormone is inhibited by aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in the management of precocious puberty?

a) Estrogen

b) Progesterone

c) Testosterone

d) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

None

12. What psychological issue may arise in patients experiencing early puberty due to social pressures and high vulnerability?

a) Anxiety

b) Depression

c) Body image concerns

d) All of the above

None

13. What is a seizure?

a) A non-recurrent, abnormal electrical activity in the brain causing abnormal motor movements

b) A sudden, controlled electrical disturbance in the brain leading to consciousness loss

c) A temporary increase in brain activity resulting in heightened awareness

d) An involuntary contraction of voluntary muscles due to a malfunction in the spinal cord

None

14. Which statement regarding epilepsy is correct?

a) Epilepsy is always provoked by reversible stressors.

b) A single seizure is considered epilepsy.

c) Epilepsy is characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures.

d) Epileptic seizures are always caused by known brain disorders.

None

15. What is the purpose of selective dorsal rhizotomy (SDR) in cerebral palsy management?

a) To treat epilepsy

b) To correct visual impairments

c) To reduce spasticity and chronic pain

d) To improve cognitive function

None

16. Which of the following is a non-epileptic seizure disorder?

a) Febrile seizures

b) Myoclonic seizures

c) Tonic-clonic seizures

d) Absence seizures

None

17. Which type of seizure involves sudden, brief jerks of a muscle or group of muscles?

a) Atonic seizures

b) Tonic seizures

c) Myoclonic seizures

d) Absence seizures

None

18. Which nursing intervention is essential during a seizure to prevent airway obstruction?

a) Encouraging the patient to speak

b) Providing supplemental oxygen

c) Inserting objects into the mouth

d) Turning the patient's head to the side

None

19. What is the recommended medical intervention for prolonged febrile seizures?

a) Administration of intravenous lorazepam

b) Immediate initiation of antiretroviral therapy

c) Placement of the child in a cold bath

d) Administration of antipyretic medications

None

20. What is cerebral palsy?

a) A condition caused by brain damage during pregnancy or shortly after birth, affecting movement and muscle control.

b) A type of epilepsy characterized by recurrent seizures and loss of consciousness.

c) A neurological disorder characterized by excessive drooling and intellectual disabilities.

d) A condition resulting from spinal cord injuries causing paralysis and loss of sensation.

None

21. Inflammation of the brain and its covering membranes is termed as ....................?

22. The........................is the part of the brain affected by spastic cerebral palsy.

23. ...............................therapy focuses on improving everyday tasks and fine motor skills in children with cerebral palsy?

24. A smaller than usual penis in males, which can be a result of hormonal imbalances or genetic factors is called .............................?

25. At fertilization, each human parent contributes .................... chromosomes to the formation of a zygote.

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Pediatrics Day 1 Quiz

Welcome to your Pediatrics Day 1 Quiz

20 Questions

June 18, 2025

1. What is the classification of Haemophilus influenzae based on the presence or absence of a capsule?

A) Gram-positive and Gram-negative

B) Aerobic and Anaerobic

C) Encapsulated and Unencapsulated

D) Cocci and Bacilli

None

2. Which type of Haemophilus influenzae is the most prevalent and notorious for causing severe diseases?

A) Type a

B) Type c

C) Type b

D) Type f

None

3. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

A) Bacteremia

B) Otitis media

C) Malaria

D) Pneumonia

None

4. What is the primary mode of spread for Haemophilus influenzae?

A) Fecal-oral route

B) Vector-borne transmission

C) Person-to-person through respiratory droplets

D) Sexual contact

None

5. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to the risk of Haemophilus influenzae infection?

A) Large household size

B) High socioeconomic status

C) Childcare attendance

D) Chronic diseases

None

6. What is the first-line treatment for severe Haemophilus influenzae infections?

A) Penicillin

B) Macrolides

C) Third-generation cephalosporins

D) Aminoglycosides

None

7. What preventive measure is highly effective in reducing the incidence of invasive Haemophilus influenzae diseases?

A) Hand hygiene

B) Hib vaccine

C) Antibiotic prophylaxis

D) Respiratory etiquette

None

8. Which age group is particularly vulnerable to severe Haemophilus influenzae infections due to underdeveloped immune systems?

A) Adolescents

B) Young adults

C) Elderly

D) Infants

None

9. What complication may arise due to swelling of the epiglottis in Haemophilus influenzae epiglottitis?

A) Joint damage

B) Airway obstruction

C) Sepsis

D) Hearing impairment

None

10. What are the three membranes that collectively enclose and protect the brain and spinal cord, known as the meninges?

a) Parietal, occipital, temporal

b) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

c) Diencephalon, mesencephalon, myelencephalon

d) Frontal, parietal, temporal

None

11. What is the classical triad of symptoms associated with meningitis?

a) Nuchal rigidity, fever, photophobia

b) Headache, fever, neck stiffness

c) Altered consciousness, vomiting, leg pain

d) Severe headache, seizures, photophobia

None

12. Which sign is specific for meningitis and is characterized by neck flexion causing involuntary knee and hip flexion?

a) Positive Kernig's sign

b) Positive Brudzinski's sign

c) Positive Chaddock's sign

d) Positive Babinski's sign

None

13. Which of the following conditions is associated with a lack of spleen and is considered a risk factor for meningitis?

a) Diabetes mellitus

b) Sickle cell disease

c) Asplenia

d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

None

14. Which preventive measure involves placing the patient in a dedicated room and wearing protective gear to prevent the spread of the infectious agent to others?

a) Vaccination

b) Isolation precautions

c) Antibiotic prophylaxis

d) Personal hygiene

None

15. Which term is used to describe individuals with reproductive or sexual anatomy that doesn't align with the traditional definitions of "male" or "female"?

a) Hermaphrodites

b) Congenital eunuchs

c) Intersex

d) Frigid

None

16. What are the two chromosome pairs in humans, representing genetic sex?

a) XY for females and XX for males

b) XY for males and XX for females

c) YY for males and XX for females

d) XX for males and XY for females

None

17. Which condition involves the overproduction of androgens by the adrenal glands, affecting genital development in females?

a) Turner syndrome

b) Klinefelter syndrome

c) Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)

d) Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

None

18. What does "46" refer to in the context of intersex chromosomes?

a) The number of sex chromosomes in an abnormal human cell

b) The total number of chromosomes in a normal human cell

c) The number of chromosomes contributed by the father

d) The number of chromosomes contributed by the mother

None

19. Which type of surgery involves the removal of gonads to address concerns related to gonadal cancer risk or hormone imbalances?

a) Genital reconstruction surgery

b) Gonadectomy

c) Corrective surgery

d) Breast augmentation or chest reconstruction

None

20. What is one of the challenges faced by intersex individuals related to societal perceptions and acceptance?

a) Abandonment

b) Infanticide

c) Stigmatization

d) Unequal treatment

None

Name

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Entrepreneurship Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Entrepreneurship Week 1 Exam

40 Questions, 30 MCQ's and 10 Fill-in's.

June 18, 2025

1. What distinguishes an entrepreneur from a manager?

a) Their approach to decision-making

b) Their role in the organization

c) Their motivation for innovation

d) Their focus on long-term goals

None

2. Which type of entrepreneur is motivated by circumstances beyond their control?

a) Innovative Entrepreneur

b) Imitative Entrepreneur

c) Push (Forced or Necessity) Entrepreneur

d) Pull (Motivated) Entrepreneur

None

3. What is the primary motivation for a pure entrepreneur?

a) Financial rewards

b) Personal satisfaction

c) Power and control

d) Achieving organizational competitiveness

None

4. In the entrepreneurial process, what is the first step?

a) Business planning

b) Generation of ideas

c) Evaluating the idea

d) Self-entrepreneurial identification

None

5. Which factor is crucial for the success of a business in Uganda?

a) Political instability

b) Intense competition

c) Seasonality of markets

d) Government support

None

6. Who is responsible for creating new products within a large organization?

a) Entrepreneur

b) Intrapreneur

c) Manager

d) Government

None

7. What is a business idea?

a) A plan for personal development

b) A concept for making money through financial investments

c) An identified situation that can be turned into a profitable activity or business

d) A strategy for socializing in the business community

None

8. How can entrepreneurs identify potential business opportunities?

a) By focusing solely on their personal interests

b) By conducting market research and analysis

c) By relying on intuition and gut feelings

d) By following trends without critical evaluation

None

9. What factor should entrepreneurs consider when evaluating the feasibility of a business idea?

a) Personal preferences and interests

b) Theoretical market demand

c) Technical skills and resources required

d) Lack of competition

None

10. What characteristic makes a business opportunity attractive?

a) Limited growth potential

b) High initial investment requirements

c) Reasonable ease of entry into the market

d) Overwhelming legal restrictions

None

11. What is the significance of personnel feasibility in evaluating a business opportunity?

a) To discourage entrepreneurship

b) To limit the growth potential of the business

c) To ensure that the business has the necessary human resources for success

d) To minimize market demand

None

12. What is a sole proprietorship?

a) A business owned and managed by multiple individuals

b) A business with limited liability for its owner

c) A business owned and managed by one person

d) A business owned by the government

None

13. Which of the following is a characteristic of a partnership?

a) Limited liability for all partners

b) Sole decision-making authority of one partner

c) Business owned and managed by one person

d) Profit and loss sharing among partners

None

14. What distinguishes a general partnership from a limited partnership?

a) Number of partners involved

b) Liability of partners

c) Type of business conducted

d) Location of the business

None

15. What is the maximum number of members allowed in a partnership?

a) 50

b) 20

c) 14

d) 100

None

16. Which document serves as the foundation of a company's constitution?

a) Partnership deed

b) Memorandum of Association

c) Articles of Association

d) Certificate of Incorporation

None

17. What is the primary reason for the dissolution of a company?

a) Limited liability

b) Increased profitability

c) Bankruptcy

d) Ease of formation

None

18. What is a cooperative?

a) A government-owned business

b) A business owned and controlled by its members

c) A privately-owned corporation

d) A partnership between two companies

None

19. Which principle of insurance ensures that the insured must have a financial loss if the property or business is damaged?

a) Principle of Utmost Good Faith

b) Principle of Insurable Interest

c) Principle of Indemnity

d) Principle of Subrogation

None

20. Which financial statement reports a company's financial position at a specific point in time?

a) Income statement

b) Cash flow statement

c) Balance sheet

d) Statement of retained earnings

None

21. Public companies can have a minimum of __________ members, while private companies can have a minimum of 2 members.

22. Entrepreneurship within an existing business is referred to as __________.

23. The term used to mean possibility of suffering loss, harm, or danger in business is __________.

24. A process of attracting, screening, and selecting a qualified person for a job is known as __________.

25. A process of choosing applicants using job qualification guide is termed as __________.

26. A resource in management that is usually considered non-renewable is __________.

27. Equipment or items designed for single use are referred to as __________.

28. Recording, labeling, and holding equipment in a stock or storeroom is known as __________.

29. The type of entrepreneurship that deals with societal well-being is known as _________Entrepreneurship

30. How far now? Are you somewhere ready? Because the above fill ins are from UNMEB past papers.

Yes, Kinda ready

Still a long way to go.

None

31. Which of the following is NOT a key component of IMCI?

a) Improving case management skills of healthcare providers

b) Improving health systems to provide quality care

c) Promoting vaccination campaigns only

d) Improving family and community health practices

None

32. What does the pink color classification indicate in the IMCI guidelines?

a) Not serious, no drugs needed

b) Urgent referral needed

c) Specific treatment needed

d) Routine follow-up required

None

33. What is considered a general danger sign in a sick child?

a) Runny nose

b) Sneezing

c) Lethargy

d) Hiccups

None

34. What action should be taken if a child is convulsing now?

a) Wait and observe

b) Administer diazepam

c) Offer the child clean water

d) Refer the child for a routine check-up

None

35. How is persistent diarrhea defined?

a) Diarrhea lasting less than 14 days

b) Diarrhea lasting 14 days or more

c) Diarrhea with blood in the stool

d) Diarrhea with vomiting

None

36. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of severe dehydration in a child?

a) Sunken eyes

b) Eager drinking

c) Weak or absent pulse

d) Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds

None

37. What is the classification for a child with a temperature of 38.5°C or above and no signs of severe malaria?

a) Uncomplicated malaria

b) Very severe febrile disease

c) Fever: no malaria

d) Severe malaria

None

38. A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic with diarrhea lasting for 10 days. The child appears restless and irritable, with sunken eyes noted on examination. How would you classify this child's condition?

a) No dehydration

b) Some dehydration

c) Severe dehydration

d) Hypovolaemic shock

None

39. A 4-year-old child presents with a temperature of 38.7°C and a history of traveling to a high malaria risk area. On examination, there is no evidence of stiff neck or severe dehydration. How would you classify this child's fever?

a) Very severe febrile disease

b) Uncomplicated malaria

c) Fever: no malaria

d) Severe malaria

None

40. A 9-month-old infant presents with a cough and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you notice chest in-drawing and a respiratory rate of 52 breaths per minute. The child is alert and responsive. How would you classify this child's condition?

a) No signs of pneumonia or very severe disease

b) Pneumonia

c) Severe pneumonia

d) Hypovolaemic shock

None

Name

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