Quizzes & Surveys - Page 7 of 10

Research Day 10 Quiz

Welcome to your Research Day 10 Quiz

September 16, 2024

Attempt all questions

1. Which section of a research proposal typically includes the researcher's declaration and supervisor's approval?

A. Table of Contents

B. Preliminary Pages

C. Main Body

D. Appendices

None

2. What is the definition of sampling error in research?

A. An error that arises due to data collection mistakes.

B. An error resulting from the randomness of the sampling process.

C. An error introduced during data analysis.

D. An error due to poor research design.

None

3. What type of research design aims to establish causation through controlled experiments?

A. Descriptive

B. Correlational

C. Experimental

D. Comparative

None

4. What does "n" represent in the formula n = Z²pq / d² for sample size determination?

A. Margin of error

B. Sample size

C. Confidence level

D. Population size

None

5. When conducting a census for sample size determination, it is most suitable for which type of population?

A. Large populations

B. Medium-sized populations

C. Small populations

D. Random populations

None

6. What is the main advantage of a cross-sectional study?

A. Provides insights into cause-and-effect relationships

B. Predicts future outcomes

C. Quick and cost-effective

D. Enables study of changes over time

None

7. Which of the following is not a component of the preliminary pages in a research proposal?

A. List of Acronyms

B. Declaration

C. Table of Contents

D. Chapter One

None

8. Which factor may influence the choice of a sample size determination?

A. The researcher's favorite determination

B. Research Objectives

C. The size of the determination tool

D. The popularity of the determination in the research community

None

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of sampling error?

A. Random

B. Systemic

C. Experimental

D. Statistical

None

10. How does pretesting differ from pilot study in terms of data collection?

A. Pretesting relies on objective data.

B. Pretesting evaluates research instruments

C. Pretesting gathers qualitative data

D. Pretesting gathers non-numerical data.

None

11. .....................is a process of evaluating a research instrument?

12. When a population is small, sampling may not be necessary, when a researcher works with the entire population. This is known as a ____________.

13. The set of population to which the research results will be generalized is called the ____________ population.

14. A ................................. is a smaller, trial version of your research conducted on a limited scale..

15. In an experimental research design, the group that doesn't receive any intervention(Independent variable) is referred to as the _________________ group.

Name

Time's up

Research Day 10 Quiz Read More »

Palliative Care Certification Exam

Welcome to your Palliative Care Certification Exam

Do Not Use Fullstops in your Fill in answers.

You will get a certificate after the Exam, Remember to use your FULL NAME.

September 16, 2024

Attempt All Questions

Time Allowed: 2 hours

1. What is the primary focus of palliative care?

a) End-of-life care

b) Increasing life expectancy

c) Improving quality of life for serious illness

d) Providing curative treatments

None

2. When is it usually considered appropriate to provide palliative care?

a) Only in the final stages of an illness

b) Only for elderly patients

c) At any age and at any stage of a serious illness

d) Only for cancer patients

None

3. What is the definition of bereavement?

a) The emotional response to loss

b) The state of having lost something or someone

c) The period of mourning

d) The process of grieving

None

4. Which of the following factors can influence the way a person grieves?

a) The presence of strong support systems

b) The age of the bereaved

c) The gender of the person who passed away

d) All of the above

None

5. What does the holistic care approach in palliative care entail?

a) Focusing solely on physical symptoms

b) Providing spiritual care only

c) Treating patients as a whole, addressing physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs

d) Prioritizing emotional support

None

6. What is the primary advantage of facility-based palliative care?

a) Reduced travel time for patients

b) Greater community involvement

c) Immediate access to healthcare professionals and specialized equipment

d) Enhanced socialization

None

7. What is the term for grief that is not fully acknowledged or recognized by society, leading to a more complicated grieving process?

a) Cumulative grief

b) Maladaptive grief

c) Disenfranchised grief

d) Masked grief

None

8. What is the primary purpose of monitoring the respiratory rate in patients receiving morphine?

a. To measure the patient's oxygen saturation

b. To detect opioid addiction

c. To identify urinary retention

d. To assess for severe respiratory depression

None

9. What does the term "euthanasia" mean?

a) A happy and peaceful death

b) The practice of ending a person's life intentionally

c) Medical treatment to extend life

d) Pain management during the dying process

None

10. Which type of communication involves the exchange of ideas through spoken expression in words?

a) Verbal communication

b) Non-verbal communication

c) Closed-ended communication

d) Reflective communication

None

11. What does the "ROLES" acronym stand for in relation to body language indicating active listening?

a) Relaxed, Open, Lean, Empathetic, Summarized

b) Respected, Organized, Limited, Encouraging, Structured

c) Relaxed, Open, Lean, Eye contact, Sit near

d) Reflective, Optimistic, Linguistic, Energetic, Supportive

None

12. What is the concept of the "slippery slope" in euthanasia ethics?

a) A gradual decline in the quality of palliative care

b) Fear that legalizing euthanasia for specific cases may lead to broader acceptance

c) The likelihood of involuntary euthanasia

d) A slippery surface in healthcare facilities

None

13. What can be a psychological impact of euthanasia on healthcare professionals?

a) Increased job satisfaction

b) Emotional distress, guilt, or trauma

c) Strong sense of accomplishment

d) Elevation in salary

None

14. What technique involves warning, pausing, checking, and chunking when addressing difficult questions with children?

a) Tactful questioning

b) WPC Chunk Technique

c) Closed-ended questioning

d) Non-verbal communication

None

15. What is the most common and feared symptom among those nearing the end of life?

a) Nausea and vomiting

b) Fatigue

c) Pain

d) Depression

None

16. What is Near Death Awareness (NDA)?

a. A term used to describe a person's experiences of the dying process.

b. A type of medical treatment for the terminally ill.

c. A psychological disorder associated with the fear of death.

d. A form of assisted suicide.

None

17. Which type of pain involves damage to the peripheral nerves and is often described as burning, shooting, or electrical-like sensations?

a) Somatic pain

b) Central pain

c) Neuropathic pain

d) Visceral pain

None

18. What is the primary purpose of a living will?

A) To distribute the deceased's property

B) To appoint guardians for minor children

C) To outline medical treatment preferences

D) To name an executor

None

19. Which type of pain involves pain originating from organs and is often described as crampy, nagging, or dull?

a) Visceral pain

b) Somatic pain

c) Central pain

d) Peripheral pain

None

20. Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of total pain?

a) Physical

b) Psychological

c) Social

d) Medical

None

21. What does the FLACC Pain Scale assess primarily?

a) Self-reported pain intensity

b) Pain location on a body chart

c) Pain-related behaviors in non-communicative individuals

d) Pain duration and changes over time

None

22. What is the first step in the WHO Analgesic Ladder for pain management?

a. Strong opioids

b. Weak opioids

c. Non-opioids

d. Adjuvant medications

None

23. Which principle of effective pain management emphasizes administering analgesics at regular intervals and titrating the dose against pain?

a. By the mouth

b. By the clock

c. By the ladder

d. By the patient

None

24. What is the primary purpose of breaking bad news to a patient?

a) To provide false hope

b) To avoid informing the patient about their condition

c) To reduce uncertainty and help the patient make informed decisions

d) To maintain trust

None

25. What is the maximum daily dose of paracetamol recommended for adults?

a. 1 gram

b. 2 grams

c. 3 grams

d. 4 grams

None

26. Which pharmacological agent is primarily used to manage bone pain in palliative care?

a. Gabapentin

b. Morphine

c. Bisphosphonates

d. Codeine

None

27. What should be done with expired or rejected class A drugs like morphine?

a. They should be sold to patients at a discount.

b. They should be disposed of following WHO guidelines.

c. They can be used for educational purposes.

d. They should be given to other healthcare providers.

None

28. What is breakthrough pain in the relation of pain management?

A) A pain intensity level below the patient's tolerance threshold.

B) A sudden, severe flare-up of pain that occurs despite ongoing pain management.

C) Pain that can be relieved with over-the-counter pain relievers.

D) Chronic pain that gradually worsens over time.

None

29. What is the purpose of a breakthrough dose in pain management?

A) To replace the patient's regular pain medication.

B) To serve as the primary pain relief method.

C) To provide extra pain relief during episodes of sudden, severe pain.

D) To reduce the need for any pain medication.

None

30. Free mark? Okay, but do you know Cumulative grief?

Yes, Grief related to multiple losses

I think yes! Cumulative is like cumulative curve, up up up!

None

31. The term that refers to a dying person's experience of the death process is referred to as.........................?

32. Palliative care begins from the time of ________ and extends beyond the patient's passing.

33. In palliative care, communication is considered complete when there is ____________.

34. When addressing difficult questions in children's palliative care, the "WPC Chunk Technique" involves the components: Warn, Pause, ____________, and Chunk.

35. Regular _______________ are needed in all patients who receive opiates to prevent constipation.

36. ___________ involves inserting thin needles at specific points on the body to stimulate energy flow and reduce pain.

37. In cases of severe respiratory depression, the opioid receptor antagonist __________ can be used as an antidote.

38. The foundation of all effective communication is............?

39. A patient who fails to accept his or her diagnosis is said to be in ...............?

40. ...................... is the type of grief before an expected loss.

Name

Time's up

Palliative Care Certification Exam Read More »

test

Welcome to your test

2 l 3

None

Time's up

test Read More »

Palliative Care Week 3 UNMEB Exam

Welcome to your Palliative Care Week 3 UNMEB Exam

ALL QUESTIONS ARE SOURCED FROM UNMEB PAST PAPERS

DO NOT USE FULL STOPS WHILE ANSWERING FILL IN QUESTIONS

Attempt All Questions

September 16, 2024

1. Which of the following drugs is recommended for a cancer patient experiencing mild pain?

(a) Paracetamol.

(b) Codeine.

(d) Ibuprofen.

None

2. Which of the following is NOT a component of holistic palliative care?

(a) Emotional care.

(b) Symptom relief.

(d) Psychological care.

None

3. The classical signs and symptoms of a patient with hypercalcaemia include

(a) nausea and vomiting.

(b) decreased pain.

(d) loss of sensation.

None

4. Which of the following should NOT be included in a will?

(a) Bio-data of the writer.

(b) Family property.

(d) Property of the writer.

None

5. Who among the following is NOT a member of the palliative care team?

(a) Nurses.

(b) Patient.

(d) Support staff.

None

6. Metastatic spinal cord compression commonly occur in patients with

(a) metastatic breast cancer.

(b) severe unremitting back pain.

(d) metastatic vertebral disease.

None

7. Which of the following protective mechanism will take a bereaved person to the funeral?

(a) Anger.

(b) Disbelief.

(d) Guilt.

None

8. Which of the following manifestations is NOT a sign of complicated grief?

(a) Social withdraw.

(b) Substance abuse.

(d) Increased libido.

None

9. Which of the following parameters does NOT affect a person's response to a loss?

(a) Age.

(b) Significance of the loss.

(d) Spiritual disbelief.

None

10. Nurses should assess the severity of pain based on behavioral indicators using

(a) FLACC scale.

(b) self-reporting scale.

(d) numerical scale.

None

11. Which of the following conditions causes somatic pain?

(a) Herpes simplex.

(b) Herpes zoster.

(d) Headache.

None

12. Which of the following is a cognitive response to loss and grief?

(a) Abandonment.

(b) Anger.

(d) Loneliness.

None

13. Which of the following should nurses assess during the neurological examination of a dying patient?

(a) Skin color.

(b) Respiration rate.

(d) Level of consciousness.

None

14. Which of the following is NOT a physical response to loss and grief?

(a) Appetite change.

(b) Palpitations.

(d) Fear.

None

15. Which of the following interventions is most effective for improving dyspnoea?

(a) Walking aid.

(b) Breathing training.

(d) Chest wall vibration.

None

16. Which of the following statements best describes neuropathic pain?

(a) Pain is usually treated with anti-inflammatory agents.

(b) It is a result of disordered nerve function.

(d) Rarely responds to opioid analgesics.

None

17. Which of the following statements is true concerning the WHO analgesic ladder for pain management?

(a) Dosage is determined on an individual basis.

(b) Persistent pain requires regular dosing.

(d) Treatment should only move stepwise up not down.

None

Hint

18. Which of the following routes of drug administration is NOT appropriate for opioids administered to manage pain in palliative care?

(a) Transmucosal.

(b) Intramuscular.

(d) Intrathecal.

None

19. Nurses should accurately assess pain in children under two years of age using:

(a) smiley face.

(b) numerical finger assessment.

(d) degree of crying.

None

20. The recommended protocol for preventing constipation among patients getting started on opioids is to:

(a) increase bulk fiber in the diet.

(b) increase fluids and exercises.

(d) use bowel stimulants and stool softeners.

None

21. Which of the following is NOT a priority concern that should be addressed in the terminal care of children?

(a) Nutrition.

(b) Pain.

(d) Pity.

None

22. While dispelling myths in a health education session, the nurse educating the patients emphasizes that morphine:

(a) causes constipation.

(b) is given to dying patients only.

(d) quickens death in terminally ill patients.

None

Hint

23. A strong belief based on spiritual apprehension rather than objective proof of something is referred to as:

(a) Religion.

(b) Spirituality.

(d) Culture

None

24. Which of the following terms refers to a society's response to loss?

(a) Grieving.

(b) Mourning.

(d) Anger.

None

25. The purpose of palliative care is to meet the:

(a) physiological.

(b) social and spiritual.

(d) physical, psychological, social, and spiritual.

None

26. A principle of palliative care that looks at the total aspect of a patient is called ..................?

27. A progressive illness with distressing symptoms that cannot be cured by any treatment is termed as a ...................... illness?

28. A gurgling sound heard in a dying patient's throat is termed as .............?

29. A document written by a patient on palliative care communicating his/her wishes is called a ...................?

30. On a scale of 1 to 10, how well do you think you are ready for a palliative care?

Name

Time's up

Palliative Care Week 3 UNMEB Exam Read More »

Palliative Care Day 7 Quiz

Welcome to your Palliative Care Day 7 Quiz

September 16, 2024

Do not use full stops in fill ins.

Attempt all Numbers.

1. The concept that acknowledges that pain is not just a physical phenomenon but has psychological, social, and spiritual dimensions is:

(a) Total pain

(b) Nociceptive pain

(d) Comprehensive pain

None

2. Headaches associated with increased intracranial pressure due to cryptococcal meningitis will respond well to:

(a) Amitriptyline

(b) Dexamethasone

(d) Phenytoin

None

Hint

3. The psychological response or feeling resulting from loss is:

(a) Crying

(b) Bereavement

(d) Mourning

None

4. What is the aim of rehabilitation in community-based palliative care?

(a) Help the patient achieve his functional capacity before illness

(b) To make patients attain complete physical fitness

(d) Make a patient fit enough to attend hospital services

None

5. Why is there a need for palliative care in older people?

(a) Due to increased cancer rate in elderly

(b) Nobody cares for older people

(d) Old people suffer from chronic illness

None

6. The most important supportive therapy to consider when starting patients on opioids is:

(a) Anti-depressants for pain relief

(b) NSAIDS for adjuvant pain

(d) Laxatives to prevent constipation

None

7. Which of the following side effects of opioid analgesics does NOT develop pharmacological tolerance?

(a) Constipation

(b) Nausea

(d) Sedation

None

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding neuropathic pain?

(a) Due to direct stimulation of Nociceptors

(b) Rarely responsive to opioid analgesics

(d) A disorder of nerve function

None

9. Which of the following questions help in the assessment of pain among adults?

(a) Have you noticed a fever?

(b) How do you feel all-over?

(d) How does it affect your life?

None

10. Which of the following best defines bereavement?

(a) Way of expressing grief

(b) Great sadness felt by an individual

(d) Feeling the social impact of loss

None

11. Which of the following is NOT a spiritual need?

(a) Isolation

(b) Forgiveness

(d) Love

None

12. One of the following is a tool for assessing the severity of pain relying on behavioral indicators:

(a) FLACC scale

(b) Numerical scale

(d) QUESTT scale

None

13. Which of the following may NOT cause hiccups?

(a) Lowering of diaphragm

(b) Central nervous tumor

(d) Irritation of the phrenic nerve

None

14. The most common symptom of disease of the oral cavity in terminally ill patients is:

(a) Anorexia

(b) Halitosis

(d) Dehydration

None

15. Which of the following refers to the principle of palliative care where a client is regarded as a whole person?

(a) Teamwork and partnership

(b) Holistic approach

(d) Patient-centered care

None

16. Drugs that can help complement the analgesic ladder when used in the control of pain are termed as ......................?

17. A simple visual scale used to assess pain is known as the .....................?

18. The need to increase the drug over time to get the same therapeutic effect is termed as .....................?

19. The stage that marks the end of grieving or mourning is known as...............stage?

20. Just a month to Exams, do you feel you will be ready by then?

Yes, hopefully!

Trying my best!

None

Name

Time's up

Palliative Care Day 7 Quiz Read More »

Teaching Methodology Day 8 UNMEB Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 8 UNMEB Quiz

DO NOT ADD FULL STOPS IN FILL IN's

Attempt All Questions

September 16, 2024

1. Which of the following is a major role of an educator?

(a) Negotiate.

(b) Facilitate.

(d) Communicate.

None

2. Which of the following approaches should educators employ to impart skills to their learners?

(a) Modified lecture.

(b) Small group discussion.

(d) Demonstration.

None

3. Which of the following is a measurable characteristic that assumes different values?

(a) Data

(b) Variable

(d) Theory

None

4. Which of the following enhances effectiveness of teaching and learning?

(a) Keeping students busy.

(b) Out-dated knowledge.

(d) Employing active techniques.

None

5. Students have an opportunity to explore for more information during

(a) modified lectures.

(b) self-directed learning.

(d) practical field visits.

None

6. The difference between adult and child learning methods is.

(a) ability to utilize past experiences in training.

(b) desire to participate the learning experience.

(d) need to involve the learner in the learning.

None

7. Which of the following phrases sums up the lecture method of teaching?

(a) Teacher-centered.

(b) Student-centered.

(d) Activity-based.

None

8. Which of the following learning domains requires use and coordination of the skeletal muscles?

(a) Cognitive.

(b) Psychomotor.

(d) Psychological.

None

9. Which of the following is NOT an audio-visual aid?

(a) Television.

(b) Radio.

(d) Video tapes.

None

10. For which of the following reasons should people observe research ethics?

(a) Make the research clear.

(b) Make the research valid.

(d) Promote research rules.

None

11. Which of the following should nurses use to collect data from an illiterate group of participants?

(a) Focus group discussion.

(b) Self-administered questionnaires.

(d) Key informant interview.

None

12. Which of the following categories of individuals heads and guides the research process?

(a) Respondent.

(b) Informer.

(d) Investigator.

None

13. Which of the following terms refers to the area where the research will be conducted?

(a) Map.

(b) Geographical area.

(d) Study setting.

None

14. Which of the following terms refers to the idea of interest that the researcher wants to study?

(a) Problem.

(b) Abstract.

(d) Hypothesis.

None

15. Which of the following is NOT a data collection technique?

(a) Interviewing.

(b) Questionnaire.

(d) Observation.

None

16. Which of the following statements is true concerning quantitative research?

(a) Collection of non-numerical data.

(b) Attempts to confirm the researcher's hypothesis.

(d) It attempts to generate a new theory.

None

17. Under which section of the study are research participants described in detail?

(a) Discussion.

(b) Literature review.

(d) Introduction.

None

18. Which of the following ethical principles underpins voluntary and informed consent?

(a) Beneficence.

(b) Autonomy.

(d) Respect.

None

19. Which of the following correctly describes an abstract?

(a) Particular and realistic.

(b) Realistic and general.

(d) Concrete and specific.

None

20. How do you feel after taking the above 19 Objectives?

Feel fantastic, I need more! Oliver Twist

I think I need to read more, Eh!

None

21. The type of assessment performed at the end of the learning period is called .................. assessment.

22. The accuracy with which a test measures what it is intended to measure is called........?

23. The process of obtaining a portion out of the available population to participate in a research study is referred to as.............?

24. The process of ascertaining or judging the value of teaching and learning processes is termed as .........?

25. A perplexing or enigmatic situation that a researcher wants to address through disciplined inquiry is a ..............................?

26. The method of teaching that is often used at the beginning of a session to generate multiple ideas about a topic is...........?

27. After a clinical day, students come together with their supervisor to discuss the day's achievements. This is referred to as.....................?

28. A student researcher moves to the field to gather information to confirm or disprove their topic during a process known as.........................?

29. The brief description of the study that is placed at the beginning of the research report is an ............?

30. ..................... assessment is a form of assessment that allows the teacher to check for student understanding along the way, as the lesson or unit is being taught.

Name

Time's up

Teaching Methodology Day 8 UNMEB Quiz Read More »

Teaching Methodology Day 7 UNMEB Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 7 UNMEB Quiz

It is 100% UNMEB Questions from Past Papers

Attempt All Questions

September 16, 2024

1. In research, a characteristic whose value relies on that of another is called the............ variable.

(a) independent.

(b) independence.

(d) dependence.

None

2. Every subject in the population has an equal chance of being chosen or selected to participate in a research study through..........sampling.

(a) snowball.

(b) purposive.

(d) probability.

None

3. A study design where data is collected over two or more points in time is called

(a) retrospective.

(b) prospective.

(d) longitudinal.

None

4. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research design except for the fact that it

(a) relies primarily on the collection of numerical data.

(b) can produce important knowledge.

(d) is rarely conducted in a controlled setting or environment.

None

5. Which of the following clusters comprises of quantitative variables?

(a) Age, temperature, income, height.

(b) Grade point average, anxiety level, performance level readings.

(d) Hair color, favorite movie, and civil status.

None

6. The introductory section of the research plan

(a) gives an overview of prior relevant studies.

(b) contains a statement of the purpose of the study.

(d) includes the research hypothesis.

None

7. In which of the following non-random sampling techniques does the researcher ask the participants to identify other potential research participants?

(a) Convenience.

(b) Snowball.

(d) Quota.

None

8. The agreement made by the participants to take part in a research project after a description of the research process is known as

(a) human dignity.

(b) full disclosure.

(d) informed consent.

None

9. Which of the following is NOT a method of data collection?

(a) Questionnaires.

(b) Interviews.

(d) Observation.

None

10. An investigator who goes to get study participants from a clinic where he personally knows several diabetics facing problems with insulin administration is conducting a type of sampling called

(a) probability.

(b) purposive.

(d) quota.

None

11. The type of evaluation that monitors learners' progress is called

(a) test.

(b) placement.

(d) summative.

None

12. Fixation of correct information through repetition is achieved through

(a) lectures.

(b) demonstrations.

(d) drills.

None

13. Which of the following factors determines how, what, and when students learn?

(a) Content relevance.

(b) Language simplicity.

(d) Teaching methodology.

None

14. Which of the following steps should be performed first in the teaching process?

(a) Re-teaching.

(b) Evaluation.

(d) Presentation of teaching materials.

None

15. Which of the following is NOT an audio-visual aid?

(a) Television.

(b) Radio.

(d) Video tapes.

None

16. In which of the following methods of teaching is knowledge transferred from a teacher to a passive learner?

(a) Lecture.

(b) Demonstration.

(d) Simulation.

None

17. The following are examples of written communication except:

(a) notes.

(b) records.

(d) grapevine.

None

18. The communication process is complete when the:

(a) sender transmits the message.

(b) message enters the channel.

(d) receiver understands the message.

None

19. Which of the following is the most important factor for assimilation of new learning to occur?

(a) Demotivation.

(b) Deactivation.

(d) Motivation.

None

20. Which of the following domains requires the use and coordination of skeletal muscles during learning?

(a) Psychological.

(b) Psychomotor.

(d) Affective.

None

21. A study that involves looking backward in time is referred to as........?

22. A collection of sources of literature that a researcher has used in formulating the literature is called............?

23. The degree of consistency of a research instrument to bring the same results all the time is called.......?

24. The ethical principle in research that ensures the well-being of the respondents is termed as ....?

25. How was this Paper? (Assessing Attitude)

Easy, i liked it.

Hard, i cant imagine those who sat it!

I don't know where i lie

None

Name

Time's up

Teaching Methodology Day 7 UNMEB Quiz Read More »

Teaching Methodology Day 5 Quiz

Welcome to your Teaching Methodology Day 5 Quiz

September 16, 2024

1. What are teaching methods in education?

a. Strategies chosen by students for learning.

b. Methods used by teachers to accomplish instructional goals.

c. Techniques for grading assignments.

d. Tools for classroom management.

None

2. When might the lecture method be applicable?

a. When students need hands-on practice.

b. When there is a need for immediate feedback.

c. When there are appropriate textbooks.

d. When introducing a new topic.

None

3. How does the interactive lecture method differ from the traditional lecture method?

a. It involves more students.

b. It encourages passivity.

c. It avoids one-way communication.

d. It uses more teaching aids.

None

4. What is the primary characteristic of the discussion method in teaching?

a. Passive participation of students

b. Sole dominance of the teacher

c. Active participation of students

d. Lecture-based approach

None

5. What is one of the advantages of the discussion method in teaching?

a. Encouraging passive learning

b. Creating opportunities for domination by bright students

c. Promoting interaction in large groups

d. Active participation by everyone in the class

None

6. What is an advantage of role-play in education?

a. Reducing class interaction

b. Creating a passive learning environment

c. Enhancing retention of information

d. Encouraging entertainment

None

7. Which type of teaching focuses on direct involvement with patients and their problems?

a. Lecture teaching

b. Role-playing

c. Clinical teaching

d. Seminar teaching

None

8. If we expect out learners to master the clinical content they are taught, and to be able to use information in clinical setting, we need to:

a) Give them the opportunity to practice

b) Expect them to know facts about topic.

c) Expect them to know the core values of a health worker

d) Objectively evaluate them at the end of every practicum placement.

None

9. In which of the following methods of teaching is knowledge transferred from a teacher to a passive learner?

a) Lecture

b) Demonstration

c) Role play

d) Simulation.

None

10. Students have an opportunity to explore for more information during:

a) modified lecture

b) self-directed learning

c) demonstration in skills lab

d) practical field visit

None

Name

Time's up

Teaching Methodology Day 5 Quiz Read More »

Occupational Health & Disaster Management Exam

Welcome to your Occupational Health & Disaster Management Exam

90% OF ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS QUIZ ARE FROM UNMEB PAST PAPERS

Attempt All Questions

Use your Real Name to Appear on the CERTIFICATE

September 16, 2024

1. Which of the following protects workers from the physical effects of high temperatures?

(a) Ceilings.

(b) Wide windows.

(d) Fridge.

None

2. Which of the following is NOT a route through which people may get exposed to chemical hazards?

(a) Blood contact.

(b) Inhalation.

(d) Ingestion.

None

3. Which of the following hazard control methods involves removing all potential risks?

(a) Elimination.

(b) Isolation.

(d) Destruction.

None

4. Which of the following explains why occupational hazards are on the rise in Uganda?

(a) Use of out-dated machinery.

(b) Poor networking with other departments.

(d) Poor maintenance of machinery and buildings.

None

5. Which of the following is NOT used in hazard identification?

(a) Laboratory test.

(b) Control assessment.

(d) Risk assessment.

None

6. Which of the following is a pathological waste?

(a) Waste with microbes.

(b) Expired drugs.

(d) Human body parts.

None

7. Which of the following is the most practical way of managing losses from job related injuries?

(a) Be part of the labour contract.

(b) Ensure effective and aggressive claims handling.

(d) Provision of good insurance coverage.

None

8. Which of the following is NOT a component of post exposure prophylaxis?

(a) Report the incident.

(b) Carry out risk assessment.

(d) Initiate post exposure prophylaxis.

None

9. Which of the following actions should be taken when liquor amnii suddenly enters a midwife's mouth?

(a) Slap the mother hard on her face.

(b) Rinse the mouth with plenty of water.

(d) Inform the in-charge immediately.

None

10. Which of the following body organs does NOT excrete chemical hazards from the body?

(a) Lungs.

(b) Kidneys.

(d) Heart.

None

11. Which of the following conditions is related to work environment forces?

(a) Tallipes.

(b) Bone tumours.

(d) Hypertension

None

12. In managing work place safety and health, the recommended practice is

(a) active approach.

(b) proactive approach.

(d) traditional approach.

None

13. Which of the following is considered as priority in the disaster preparedness and prevention?

(a) Sick children only.

(b) HIV patients only.

(d) Vulnerable people.

None

14. The following are measures utilized in primary prevention of health hazards except?

(a). Health education

(b). Establishing and enforcing health and safety regulations

(c). Prevention of further injury

(d). Engineering controls

None

15. An event managed locally without the need of added response measure is called

(a) sustainability.

(b) emergency.

(d) triage.

None

16. What does community participation in disaster management involve?

a) Exclusively professional expert involvement

b) Communities taking responsibility for their health and welfare during crises

c) Allocation of resources by the government

d) Delegating all responsibility to non-governmental organizations (NGOs)

None

17. What is the process of sorting or categorizing victims during a disaster to maximize the number of survivors called?

a) Disaster management

b) Search and rescue

c) Rehabilitation

d) Triage

None

18. Which factor can increase a community's vulnerability to disasters?

a) Strong governance

b) Access to healthcare

c) Geographic location in hazard-prone areas

d) Healthy ecosystems

None

19. Hazard ................................. involves determining the likelihood and severity of harm related to the harzard.

20. Stress as a result of over work is also referred to as..................?

21. The most effective control mechanism for the spread of hepatitis B virus among health workers is..........?

22. ........................refers to the loss of function of an organ or part of the body compared to its previous state

23. The most effective method of hazard control is ............?

24. ........................refers to an event that results in a large number of injured individuals requiring medical attention, while there is a shortage of medical personnel to provide the necessary services.

25. The process of minimizing the effects of a disaster is termed as ............?

Name

Time's up

Occupational Health & Disaster Management Exam Read More »

Disaster Management Day 3 Quiz

Welcome to your Disaster Management Day 3 Quiz

September 16, 2024

Attempt All Questions

1. What is the primary aim of Disaster Management?

a) Economic recovery

b) Minimizing suffering and damage

c) Increasing property losses

d) Enhancing infrastructure development

None

2. Which phase of the Disaster Management cycle involves implementing programs to avoid a disaster?

a) Mitigation

b) Preparedness

c) Response

d) Recovery

None

3. What does the "Preparedness" phase of Disaster Management involve?

a) Emergency response during a disaster

b) Swift recovery efforts

c) Developing response plans and training personnel

d) Recovery and rehabilitation activities

None

4. What is the main purpose of "Triage" during a disaster?

a) Sorting treatable from untreatable victims

b) Providing long-term care

c) Minimizing emergency response

d) Prioritizing resource allocation

None

5. What are the two types of mitigation activities?

a) Pre-Disaster and Post-Disaster mitigation

b) Structural and Non-structural mitigation

c) Public education and community involvement

d) Emergency response and disaster recovery

None

6. What is the main goal of "Early Warning Systems" in disaster preparedness?

a) Providing immediate assistance to disaster victims

b) Raising awareness of disaster risksx

c) Ensuring resource availability

d) Providing timely warnings and alerts

None

7. What is the primary aim of disaster response during the relief phase?

A. To prevent further casualties

B. To assess the well-being of medical staff

C. To minimize damage

D. To relieve suffering

None

8. Which category in the triage coding represents individuals with life-threatening injuries, such as hypoxia, shock, and severe burns?

A. Yellow

B. Green

C. Red

D. Black

None

9. What is the primary responsibility of nurses in dealing with stressed victims during disaster response?

A. Providing immediate medical care

B. Assisting in search and rescue operations

C. Encouraging appropriate sharing of feelings among victims

D. Repairing damaged infrastructure

None

10. What is the goal of maintaining or restoring critical activities during disaster response?

A. Rebuilding homes and businesses

B. Maximizing the number of survivors

C. Offering long-term support to affected communities

D. Ensuring the continuity of essential services

None

11. The color code used for casualties who have life-threatening injuries is............?

12. The fourth step in the conventional circle of disaster management is known as........?

13. Provision of immediate assistance to maintain life in a population affected by a disaster is termed as.............?

14. The probability of a hazard causing a disease or an injury to a worker is known as a ......?

15. How many phases are followed during disaster management?

Name

Time's up

Disaster Management Day 3 Quiz Read More »